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Look what I 'done'

  • 19-03-2012 10:38am
    #1
    Registered Users Posts: 4,017 ✭✭✭


    What is it with this use of the word 'done'?. Is it being taught in schools these days or what?. I must hear 3 or 4 people a day say 'that's what we done, I done it etc etc.

    WTF, why can't people get this right and stop talking like poorly educated morons?.


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Comments

  • Banned (with Prison Access) Posts: 2,493 ✭✭✭Fulton Crown


    Leslie91 wrote: »
    What is it with this use of the word 'done'?. Is it being taught in schools these days or what?. I must hear 3 or 4 people a day say 'that's what we done, I done it etc etc.

    WTF, why can't people get this right and stop talking like poorly educated morons?.

    Simple pal - they are poorly educated...and they are morons !

    Standard just not there any more...your fighting a loosing battle on the "done" and "seen" stuff that battle is long lost.

    Current battle is for the letter "T" under attack everywhere even on the Arr TEE EE Nehwork

    Listen to Meeriam ..and the girl tha does the business reports.

    Wha I want to know is where did the COIRK and B'FOIR stuff come from ? :confused:


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,005 ✭✭✭Enkidu


    Leslie91 wrote: »
    WTF, why can't people get this right and stop talking like poorly educated morons?.
    Why is the original form of the sentence "right"?


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,871 ✭✭✭deirdremf


    It's how people talk, like.
    Not evrywan wants ta sound like a búk, doncha know?


  • Registered Users Posts: 139 ✭✭Janey_Mac


    They speak like this because that's grammatically correct in the dialect of English they speak. Just like in the dialect I speak I can say "John's after buying bread" to mean "John has bought bread" and it's correct, but say that to someone from another country and they think it's a mistake, it sounds uneducated and wrong to them.


  • Registered Users Posts: 4,017 ✭✭✭Leslie91


    Enkidu wrote: »
    Why is the original form of the sentence "right"?

    Because it is.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 4,017 ✭✭✭Leslie91


    Janey_Mac wrote: »
    They speak like this because that's grammatically correct in the dialect of English they speak. Just like in the dialect I speak I can say "John's after buying bread" to mean "John has bought bread" and it's correct, but say that to someone from another country and they think it's a mistake, it sounds uneducated and wrong to them.

    I'm not sure I'd go for the dialect excuse when it comes to 'done'. Your example is good you are re-phrasing something and in fairness I'd accept that in conversation. But when the word to be used is 'did', using 'done' is just not acceptable to me. I cringe every time I hear it.


  • Registered Users Posts: 139 ✭✭Janey_Mac


    Leslie91 wrote: »
    Because it is.

    Says who? What makes it right, and the other wrong?

    Look, what's "right" in speech is A) Constantly changing and B) The result of a series of chance occurrences by which certain dialects and speech features became linked with prestige, power, money, respect etc. over hundreds of years. This became the standard for what was "right" but everyone else just kept on speaking in their own ways.

    Now, it helps if you can speak the standard, prestige dialect of the place you live. It is usually the expected formal dialect in business, job interviews etc. But it's not WRONG to speak your own dialect.


  • Registered Users Posts: 139 ✭✭Janey_Mac


    Leslie91 wrote: »
    I'm not sure I'd go for the dialect excuse when it comes to 'done'. Your example is good you are re-phrasing something and in fairness I'd accept that in conversation. But when the word to be used is 'did', using 'done' is just not acceptable to me. I cringe every time I hear it.

    Why would it even occur to someone to say "I done it" if it WASN'T in their dialect? It's a rule of grammar dictating which form of "to do" goes in that sentence, and some dialects have the rule that it's "did" and some have the rule that it's "done." It's not a mistake; it's a feature of a dialect.


  • Registered Users Posts: 139 ✭✭Janey_Mac


    Leslie91 wrote: »
    I'm not sure I'd go for the dialect excuse when it comes to 'done'. Your example is good you are re-phrasing something and in fairness I'd accept that in conversation. But when the word to be used is 'did', using 'done' is just not acceptable to me. I cringe every time I hear it.

    And you cringe because it's not right in your dialect, and also because, let's face it, that particular feature has had a huge degree of class/education stigma attached to it for at least a hundred years.


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,005 ✭✭✭Enkidu


    Leslie91 wrote: »
    Because it is.
    That sentence provides no information.

    For instance my father's family always say "childers" for the genitive plural of child, e.g.

    I see the children.

    but

    It is the childers food.

    I assume you will be willing to concede that you speak like a moron as you don't correctly form the genitive plural in the historically correct fashion like they do.

    Do you also retain the would/should distinction and the shall/will distinction? The subjunctive of the verb to be?, e.t.c., e.t.c.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 139 ✭✭Janey_Mac


    Hey Enkidu, descriptivist five!


  • Registered Users Posts: 4,017 ✭✭✭Leslie91


    Enkidu wrote: »
    That sentence provides no information.

    For instance my father's family always say "childers" for the genitive plural of child, e.g.

    I see the children.

    but

    It is the childers food.

    I assume you will be willing to concede that you speak like a moron as you don't correctly form the genitive plural in the historically correct fashion like they do.

    Do you also retain the would/should distinction and the shall/will distinction? The subjunctive of the verb to be?, e.t.c., e.t.c.

    I use the word 'did' instead of done. In my book that does not make me a moron or a snob.


  • Registered Users Posts: 4,017 ✭✭✭Leslie91


    Janey_Mac wrote: »
    Why would it even occur to someone to say "I done it" if it WASN'T in their dialect? It's a rule of grammar dictating which form of "to do" goes in that sentence, and some dialects have the rule that it's "did" and some have the rule that it's "done." It's not a mistake; it's a feature of a dialect.

    So we have 'rules of grammar'?. That rule states the word to be used is 'did' no?.

    (ignoring dialects for a min....)


  • Registered Users Posts: 139 ✭✭Janey_Mac


    Leslie91 wrote: »
    So we have 'rules of grammar'?. That rule states the word to be used is 'did' no?.

    (ignoring dialects for a min....)

    You can't ignore dialects. You're speaking one. In your dialect, and in standard English dialects, the rule is indeed that "I did" is correct and "I done" is incorrect.


  • Registered Users Posts: 537 ✭✭✭vard


    Leslie91 wrote: »
    What is it with this use of the word 'done'?. Is it being taught in schools these days or what?. I must hear 3 or 4 people a day say 'that's what we done, I done it etc etc.

    WTF, why can't people get this right and stop talking like poorly educated morons?.

    Simple pal - they are poorly educated...and they are morons !

    Standard just not there any more...your fighting a loosing battle on the "done" and "seen" stuff that battle is long lost.

    Current battle is for the letter "T" under attack everywhere even on the Arr TEE EE Nehwork

    Listen to Meeriam ..and the girl tha does the business reports.

    Wha I want to know is where did the COIRK and B'FOIR stuff come from ? :confused:

    You spelled losing wrong. Also, your post made no sense.


  • Registered Users Posts: 4,017 ✭✭✭Leslie91


    Janey_Mac wrote: »
    You can't ignore dialects. You're speaking one. In your dialect, and in standard English dialects, the rule is indeed that "I did" is correct and "I done" is incorrect.

    There is my point....

    OK.. so my problem is with 'the dialect' that has people using 'done' instead of 'did'.


  • Registered Users Posts: 139 ✭✭Janey_Mac


    Leslie91 wrote: »
    There is my point....

    OK.. so my problem is with 'the dialect' that has people using 'done' instead of 'did'.

    At last, you admit that it's YOUR problem! People who speak like that aren't wrong or stupid. They're just doing something that gets on your nerves.


  • Registered Users Posts: 83 ✭✭castor 1


    People that say I done usually also say I seen !
    It's bog English !


  • Registered Users Posts: 4,017 ✭✭✭Leslie91


    castor 1 wrote: »
    People that say I done usually also say I seen !
    It's bog English !

    Agree. Well put.


  • Registered Users Posts: 4,017 ✭✭✭Leslie91


    Janey_Mac wrote: »
    At last, you admit that it's YOUR problem! People who speak like that aren't wrong or stupid. They're just doing something that gets on your nerves.

    I should have used the word 'issue' instead of 'problem'. If by rule of grammar, 'I did' is correct and 'I done' is wrong then this is what the children of Ireland should be taught in school. If a teacher uses 'I done' they should be asked to correct themselves.

    Imho, we are doing ourselves a disservice as a people not trying to correct this.

    ('I seen' is another example)


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  • Registered Users Posts: 5,246 ✭✭✭conor.hogan.2


    Could anyone point me to the standards body of the English language?

    I will wait.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,842 ✭✭✭Micilin Muc


    I wonder if it's a Hiberno-English thing. A lot of Irish people say 'I seen', 'I done', 'I have ran' instead of the standard past participles of 'I saw', 'I did' or 'I have run'.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,842 ✭✭✭Micilin Muc


    Could anyone point me to the standards body of the English language?

    I will wait.

    There may be no one body, but the OED and Collins Dictionary are standard dictionaries that also prescribe grammar to a certain degree.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,655 ✭✭✭draiochtanois


    This post has been deleted.


  • Registered Users Posts: 139 ✭✭Janey_Mac


    I wonder if it's a Hiberno-English thing. A lot of Irish people say 'I seen', 'I done', 'I have ran' instead of the standard past participles of 'I saw', 'I did' or 'I have run'.

    Interesting notion; it's definitely not confined to Ireland or "whodunnit" wouldn't have so much currency as a word for a mystery novel in the English-speaking world.

    Quick Google shows the phrase "I seen it" used in the UK and Australia, and "I done" and "I seen" are features of Appalachian and some Southern US dialects according to Wikipedia.

    So... definitlely not exclusive to Ireland, probably didn't originate in Ireland but it is a feature of many Hiberno-English dialects.


  • Registered Users Posts: 5,246 ✭✭✭conor.hogan.2


    There may be no one body, but the OED and Collins Dictionary are standard dictionaries that also prescribe grammar to a certain degree.

    I know. So my point was there is no standard English no matter what people say. Usage dictates what is acceptable.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,842 ✭✭✭Micilin Muc


    ... there is no standard English no matter what people say. Usage dictates what is acceptable.

    Acceptable to who?

    If I proofread a billboard for Nike that said "I done my best", they wouldn't accept it.

    If I said it to friends, they would accept it.

    Are you saying the Oxford English Dictionary isn't a standard?


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,005 ✭✭✭Enkidu


    Leslie91 wrote: »
    I use the word 'did' instead of done. In my book that does not make me a moron or a snob.
    Exactly and I'm not saying it does.

    What I'm pointing out to you is that there are several features in some dialects of English that are historically correct, but I would be certain you don't use in speech (like the genitive plural). However not using these features does not make you a moron, just like using "I done" in speech does not make others morons.

    All they are doing is using the verbal adjective/perfective particle/past participle (all three names are valid) for the preterite. Since "do" is an irregular verb anyway, I wouldn't view this as some major corruption.


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,005 ✭✭✭Enkidu


    Another example is the who/whom distinction. English has case inflections on its relative particles:

    who - nominative/accusative
    whose - genitive
    whom - dative

    Many people don't say "whom" anymore, more conservative dialects of English do. For example in my parents area:

    The man to whom the childers dinner was given.

    Here we have the historically correct genitive plural on the noun "child" and the dative of the relative particle "who". Very few people would say the sentence in this form today, but this does not make them morons.

    I personally say "I did" and "I saw" for the preterite. However if I was somebody who said "I done" and "I seen" in speech, I would write "I did" and "I saw" in text. This is because the older preterite is still a part of the nebulous standard English. However it would not make me a moron to use them in my speech if that was my dialect.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 1,005 ✭✭✭Enkidu


    Janey_Mac wrote: »
    Hey Enkidu, descriptivist five!
    Descriptivists unite!


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