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Heterosexual marriage + hidden homosexuality = fraud?

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Comments

  • #62
    partyguinness
    Registered Users Posts: 8,204 ✭✭✭partyguinness


    minikin wrote: »
    See my post above. It strikes me that people are often allowed ‘throw around poorly grounded accusations’ and to have those accepted as fact in court, based upon the impression the judge forms from the performance of a witness. ‘Finding them credible because they come from the right address/the right family/the right school’ etc.




    But again..you would have to prove that the guy set out (mens rea) to defraud from the start.

    Quite often the impression of the witness is all the Judge has to go by. That is the Judge's role- he/she judges. Kinda in the job title.


  • #63
    Stark
    Registered Users Posts: 20,878 ✭✭✭✭Stark


    Serious amount of bi-erasure in this thread :)


  • #64
    MintyMagnum
    Registered Users Posts: 473 ✭✭MintyMagnum


    Interesting interview on The Late Late Show just now in the context of OP's question here.


  • #65
    Sleeper12
    Registered Users Posts: 16,865 ✭✭✭✭Sleeper12


    minikin wrote:
    After the marriage breakdown, the wife wants the husband out of the house in order to move her same sex partner in. This is a massive simplification of the case but I was interested in one point: Aside from it being a voidable marriage has a crime been committed? Entering a contract of marriage on false pretences? Is it fraudulent?


    I don't understand why you assume that the wife is gay and misled the husband. Isn't it possible that she is bysexual and was indeed attracted to him originally?


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