Advertisement
If you have a new account but are having problems posting or verifying your account, please email us on hello@boards.ie for help. Thanks :)
Hello all! Please ensure that you are posting a new thread or question in the appropriate forum. The Feedback forum is overwhelmed with questions that are having to be moved elsewhere. If you need help to verify your account contact hello@boards.ie
Hi all,
Vanilla are planning an update to the site on April 24th (next Wednesday). It is a major PHP8 update which is expected to boost performance across the site. The site will be down from 7pm and it is expected to take about an hour to complete. We appreciate your patience during the update.
Thanks all.

Any VAT experts / Tax Advisor can help ?

  • 17-11-2020 11:10pm
    #1
    wally1990
    Registered Users Posts: 1,222 ✭✭✭


    Basically, if a VAT register Irish business is supplying a service (not goods) to a buyer in the UK and it's B2B then the reverse charge mechanism shouldd apply.

    However, the work is being done for the company/buyer has offices based in Ireland and the UK.

    The piece of work is IT consultancy and the buyer has asked for the invoice to be raised to the UK entity for payment so my question is, is this compliant to do?

    When the buyer has a main business registered in Ireland but subsidiary businesses in the UK, does it matter if the invoice goes to the Irish buyer or UK buyer for payment considering the VAT involved ?

    It's the ''same buyer '' but for the direction of the invoice I'm concerned.

    Is it fine to issue to the UK branch and allow reverse charge to apply or is there a risk and could it be seen as VAT avoidance

    Or

    Is it even VAT avoidance as reverse charge will apply anyway?

    Ultimately, the branch making the payment I suppose is indeed the buyer so in that theory does
    It make it fine to do so ?


Comments

Advertisement