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The afterlife

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Comments

  • Moderators, Category Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 47,223 CMod ✭✭✭✭Black Swan


    Which presumes intersubjectivity-aids-objectivity is falsifiable. Is it falsifiable?
    Intersubjectivity is an attempt to establish reliability, or consistency between measures. Reliability does not guarantee validity, therefore it is falsifiable (e.g., if you misspell a word consistently, you have reliability without validity). But validity must have reliability as one of many conditions needed to establish sufficiency (validity as truth in measurement). Once again see Karl Popper for a more detailed explanation.
    IF God exists then surely the various ways in which we come to know are instituted by him (since he would have created us thus).
    In this above statement, how does one leap from "If God exists" (original premise) to "he would have created us thus" conclusion? When was creation introduced? It just suddenly appears as if drawn from a self-evident belief-system, when all parties to this discussion may or may not consider such as self-evident, as well as some idea that the afterlife may or may not exist.


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,021 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Black Swan wrote: »
    . . . In this above statement, how does one leap from "If God exists" (original premise) to "he would have created us thus" conclusion? When was creation introduced? It just suddenly appears as if drawn from a self-evident belief-system, when all parties to this discussion may or may not consider such as self-evident, as well as some idea that the afterlife may or may not exist.
    It's definitional, I think. "God" in antiskeptic's statement refers to a concept of God who (among other possible attributes) is the creator of all things that are. Therefore, if God exists, he created us, since otherwise we would not be.


  • Registered Users Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Black Swan wrote: »
    Intersubjectivity is an attempt to establish reliability, or consistency between measures. Reliability does not guarantee validity, therefore it is falsifiable (e.g., if you misspell a word consistently, you have reliability without validity). But validity must have reliability as one of many conditions needed to establish sufficiency (validity as truth in measurement). Once again see Karl Popper for a more detailed explanation.

    Your thumbnail explains it well.

    My point was that the attempt at achieving reliability via intersubjectivity makes the assumption the multiple observations iron out individual subjective wrinkles leading to validity.

    But if all the observers spell wrong in some way shape or form, what is being obtained after the ironing out is the majority error. It seems to me. We are no nearer validity (other than validity defined as the majority view)

    Isn't the decision: 'intersubjectivity aids validity' a personally decided upon leap? A decision undergirded by the fact that many others make that leap too.
    In this above statement, how does one leap from "If God exists" (original premise) to "he would have created us thus" conclusion? When was creation introduced? It just suddenly appears as if drawn from a self-evident belief-system, when all parties to this discussion may or may not consider such as self-evident, as well as some idea that the afterlife may or may not exist.

    See Peregrinus above. In the context of a discussiom about an afterlife, introducing a God-possibility and looking at some of the consequences of same seems a reasonable step to take.

    It seems to me that in the case of God, our objective knowing would find its grounding in God. IF God then we know because He is objective. Whereas without God our objective knowing has to be grounded in our subjective selves ( which is a nonsense).

    Intersubjectivity, whilst useful in a utilitarian way, doesn't appear to be able to act as an ultimate grounding. Since its a grounding that's built on subjective foundations. A bootstrap grounding, as it were.


    It strikes me too that IF God AND God has us knowing things, then we know whatever he has us know - irrespective of what our position is regarding his existence. We mightn't know how we know what he has us know. But we know it nontheless.


  • Registered Users Posts: 7,535 ✭✭✭Dr. Bre


    Maybe we are God..


  • Registered Users Posts: 32,951 ✭✭✭✭NIMAN


    fritzelly wrote: »
    I believe in something after death everyone and everything is connected to - no afterlife like religion preaches about, not religious in the slightest. Like to think it is more a collective consciousness more than someone knocking on the Pearly Gates asking to be allowed in.
    Had a few experiences in my life that tell me there is more than just being born and then you're dead - we live in an impossible universe inside something that doesn't exist until the universe expands in to it. So I think to say there is conclusively nothing after is a misnomer when we really nothing about anything being like little ants on a planet among trillions of planets that we know of!

    Of course no-one can say for certain there is nothing after death, they are only giving an opinion. It's an impossible thing to prove or disprove, unless you are daft enough to believe that mediums are real.

    But as for saying you believe something exists after death, why would something not exist before birth by the same logic?


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  • Moderators, Category Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 47,223 CMod ✭✭✭✭Black Swan


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    It's definitional, I think. "God" in antiskeptic's statement refers to a concept of God who (among other possible attributes) is the creator of all things that are. Therefore, if God exists, he created us, since otherwise we would not be.
    That may be so; then again, it would be good to define this "God," as used in this discussion by antiskeptic, as there are many different versions of God (or Gods and Goddesses) across the hundreds, perhaps thousands of belief systems, both contemporary and past. Nature was also mentioned above, which may have several conceptualisations. Additionally, there are a vast assortment of beliefs, or the lack of, in how agnostics may treat the label God, afterlife, and creationism.

    Even Christianity has many different belief systems, and how they may define their God, the afterlife, and how they may treat something like the theory of evolution (as opposed to creationism mentioned earlier). For example, the Lutheran version of Christianity has many different versions ranging from the Missouri Synod that interprets their God as a strict creationist, and completely rejects and sees evolutionary theory as sinful. In contrast, the Lutheran ELCA colleges and universities offer an interpretation of a God to biology majors that finds evolutionary theory as a complementary process to the explanation of changes that have occurred since creation. Some ELCA Lutheran biologists I've chatted with have not rejected the Big Bang theory. Rather, it was an alternative explanation of creation where their God started it with a Big Bang, and the energy and trillions of random combinations throughout the universe allowed for life to emerge on Earth, and perhaps other planets in the universe, without the extraordinary second-to-second, minute-to-minute, etc., attention of their God in every tiny, tiny detail (as proselytized by many belief systems).

    Consequently, it is not useful to treat "God" as a given, that everyone accepts without exception, when launching "If" statements such as "If God exists" (original premise).


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,021 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Well, to pick nits, these competing Lutheran ideas that you mention are not different, still less inconsistent, conceptions of God; more differing understandings of creation, or differing understandings of how to read scripture, which is very different. All of the Lutherans you met would doubtless affirm a belief in God, the Father almight, Creator of heaven and earth and of all things seen and unseen. And, while you could doubtless usefully unpack what each of them means by terms like "father", "almighty", "creator", "heaven" and so forth, there'd be a lot of commonality there; they have a substantially common concept of "God". And it's certainly wrong to say that any of them claim that God is "a strict creationist"; we may or may not be strict creationists, but God isn't a creationist at all (in Christian thinking); he's a Creator, which is quite different.

    I take your point that it's not useful to treat God, or any particular conception of God, as a given. But the practical reality is that there are culturally-determined conceptions of God which are common. I suggest the "If" statements ("If God exists, he created us") are best understood as meaning, not "the Creator God is the only one that could exist", but rather "I am postulating the familiar concept of the Creator God for the purposes of this discussion ".


  • Registered Users Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    "I am postulating the familiar concept of the Creator God for the purposes of this discussion ".

    Where 'familiar' means that:

    - all our ability to know and the mechanisms (where necessary) we use for arriving at knowing derive from his design for us.

    'Design' here doesn't specify means whereby we are as we are. Just that there is nothing outside him and the influences he permits to occur contributing to our make up.

    - insofar as there is insufficiency/error in our mechanisms/ability to know they are either the result of the limits installed in his design (e.g. subjective error) or the results of interference by external-to-us forces which he permits to operate within his creation (e.g. the divil)


  • Moderators, Category Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators, Regional East Moderators, Regional Midlands Moderators, Regional Midwest Moderators, Regional Abroad Moderators, Regional North Mods, Regional West Moderators, Regional South East Moderators, Regional North East Moderators, Regional North West Moderators, Regional South Moderators Posts: 8,990 CMod ✭✭✭✭Fathom


    Lets suppose there is a God and God choses to let someone know there's an afterlife and lets them know something of the nature of it. Would the person know there's an afterlife? It seems to me that to deny that the person knows there is an afterlife necessitates deployment of a man-made philosopy regarding what it is to know and which denies this person's knowing as bona fide knowing. Which means man-made trumps God-made? Hardly. And so, knowing there is an afterlife can be knowledge based rather than faith* based. *where faith is taken to mean belief without evidence
    This whole argument depends upon the first premise ("Lets suppose there is a God"). If the first is false, then the 2nd premise and all the conclusions about "afterlife" and "knowledge based" are moot. Interestingly, the weight attributed to the 2nd premise, conclusions, and discussions made by the author have treated this first premise as if true, without convincing empirical evidence that "there is a God," thereby extensively begging the question in what follows the 1st premise. Until convincing evidence occurs in support of the 1st premise, this argument is merely an exercise in construction (if true, then), and has no utility or merit to move the discussion from faith-based to "knowledge based" regarding the afterlife.


  • Registered Users Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Fathom wrote: »
    This whole argument depends upon the first premise ("Lets suppose there is a God"). If the first is false, then the 2nd premise and all the conclusions about "afterlife" and "knowledge based" are moot.

    Supposing, supposing
    Three men were frozen
    One died, how many were left?

    None, we're only supposing

    The question posed asks you what the case would be (or suggests what the case would be) in the event the supposition is true.

    Do you or don't you agree with the conclusion in the event the supposition is true?

    And if not, why not?

    It seems to me that if true, then your assumptions about what constitutes knowledge, and the position you hold below regarding same, dissolve.



    Until convincing evidence occurs in support of the 1st premise, this argument is merely an exercise in construction (if true, then), and has no utility or merit to move the discussion from faith-based to "knowledge based" regarding the afterlife.

    What constitutes convincing evidence, lies in the eye of the beholder (and anyone of like mind). That says nothing about whether they are right to be convinced of whatever they are convinced about.

    The point has already been raised upstream of here.


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  • Registered Users Posts: 37,295 ✭✭✭✭the_syco


    Meh. Reincarnation is the only afterlife that makes any sense to me.

    Be you a bird, a bee, or a bush.


  • Moderators, Category Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators, Regional East Moderators, Regional Midlands Moderators, Regional Midwest Moderators, Regional Abroad Moderators, Regional North Mods, Regional West Moderators, Regional South East Moderators, Regional North East Moderators, Regional North West Moderators, Regional South Moderators Posts: 8,990 CMod ✭✭✭✭Fathom


    Simple really, the majority of people fear death. So easy to create an afterlife to ease the burden.
    Genesis 1:27 with a switch: "So (human beings) created (God) in his own image" as characterized by anthropomorphism, with associated human social constructions as the "afterlife" used to reduce fear of death?
    For me you live on in the genes of your kids and from a molecular structure you'll always be around as Energy never truly dies.
    Replace God with a science-based Nature, receiving information (genes) from parents, and as parents passing on that "molecular structure" to future generations, thereby exhibiting a genetic "afterlife?"


  • Registered Users Posts: 537 ✭✭✭Etc


    Humans are one of billions of species existing on this earth. When was the last time you thought that the chicken you ate or the fly you swatted was going to it's afterlife ?

    Humans are no more special than any other species on this planet, yet we seem to think that we should be granted something for being here for a few years. You live, you die and nature moves on.


  • Moderators, Category Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators, Regional East Moderators, Regional Midlands Moderators, Regional Midwest Moderators, Regional Abroad Moderators, Regional North Mods, Regional West Moderators, Regional South East Moderators, Regional North East Moderators, Regional North West Moderators, Regional South Moderators Posts: 8,990 CMod ✭✭✭✭Fathom


    What constitutes convincing evidence, lies in the eye of the beholder (and anyone of like mind). That says nothing about whether they are right to be convinced of whatever they are convinced about.
    Beyond argument construction (if...then), where is the "convincing evidence" that is not merely faith-based "repetitious affirmations" (discussed earlier) in support of the first premise, and what follows it? Can you briefly summarize that evidence beyond argument construction, or is it intended to be a "given" for "anyone of like mind?"


  • Moderators, Category Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators, Regional East Moderators, Regional Midlands Moderators, Regional Midwest Moderators, Regional Abroad Moderators, Regional North Mods, Regional West Moderators, Regional South East Moderators, Regional North East Moderators, Regional North West Moderators, Regional South Moderators Posts: 8,990 CMod ✭✭✭✭Fathom


    the_syco wrote: »
    Meh. Reincarnation is the only afterlife that makes any sense to me.
    Etc wrote: »
    Humans are one of billions of species existing on this earth. When was the last time you thought that the chicken you ate or the fly you swatted was going to it's afterlife ?
    If reincarnation exists, which also suggests that it applies to all species, then do all species have a reincarnated afterlife?
    Etc wrote: »
    Humans are no more special than any other species on this planet, yet we seem to think that we should be granted something for being here for a few years. You live, you die and nature moves on.
    When taking a university biology class I remember something suggested about all species, including homo sapien sapiens: The only thing you can reasonably predict about a species is that it will either evolve or become extinct someday. This biology class gave no empirical evidence to support the notion of an afterlife.


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,021 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Lets suppose there is a God and God choses to let someone know there's an afterlife and lets them know something of the nature of it.

    Would the person know there's an afterlife?
    I think to answer that we have to explore what is meant by "God choses to let someone know there's an afterlife".

    In conventional Christian thinking, God has created us with the capacity for sensory perception, and the rationality that allows us to reflect on that and draw conclusions.

    So, for example, we could say that God "chooses to let us know" that the world is round since he has created us with the capacity to observe the world and to reflect on our observations to a point where we can work out that it is round.

    But, in a different sense, God to "choose to let us know" something by special and supernatural revelation (e.g. "This is my Son the beloved").

    Or, in yet a third sense, God could "choose to let us know" something by simply implanting that knowledge within us so that we never don't have it, and also never question how we have it. So, for example, we know what our own sensory perceptions are because we can't not know that (and, the Christian would say, this is because God has created us this way).

    So, God could choose to let us know about the afterlife by providing empirically-observable evidence from which we could draw the conclusion that there is an afterlife (e.g. near-death experiences, communications from beyond the grave). But even if God does choose this, it's plainly not inevitable that people will conclude from such evidence that the afterlife is real.

    Or, God could choose to let us know in the second sense, by extratordinary divine revalation. But, since the acceptance of extraordinary divine revelation requires faith, this isnt a knowledge that can be accessed without faith.

    Or, God could choose to let us know in the third sense, by simply creating in us an inherent awareness of the afterlife. The problem with this is that many people deny that they are aware of the afterlife, and we have no reason to doubt their honesty. So it doesn't seem that God has done this, or at least He hasn't done it consistently.
    And so, knowing there is an afterlife can be knowledge based rather than faith* based.

    *where faith is taken to mean belief without evidence
    No knowledge of any kind is possible without faith in something, even if that something is only the reliability of your own sensory perceptions. The question is never "can we know this without faith?"; it's "what faith to we have to have in order to know this?".


  • Registered Users Posts: 37,295 ✭✭✭✭the_syco


    Fathom wrote: »
    If reincarnation exists, which also suggests that it applies to all species, then do all species have a reincarnated afterlife?
    Yes. If we have no remembrance of the previous life (for the most part), then no storage capacity (brain) is needed. So the species can be what we reincarnate to, and them us. Not sure if time would matter to such a construct, so when (or what) we reincarnate as may not follow a linear timeline. Thus man could become eagle, beetle, or a tree that lives forever, watching the world

    So perhaps, if the soul matters, then perhaps we are put into an easier life if we did good?


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    the_syco wrote: »
    Yes. If we have no remembrance of the previous life (for the most part), then no storage capacity (brain) is needed.
    Near death experiences were anecdotal. At the case study level. Difficult to generalize to population level. If at all. Except for those NDE believers. "Remembrance" alternatives? Interesting studies with flatworms (phylum Platyhelminthes). Cut their heads off. They regrow them. Still remember from things experimentally learned. Due to existence of pluripotent stem cells throughout bodies. There is also the “McCannibal and his Mau Mau” hypothesis, where cannibalistic flatworms eat earlier experimentally trained flatworms and have some memory transfer for several generations. Eat thy neighbor to give them afterlife? Caution should be used with McConnell study?


  • Moderators, Category Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 47,223 CMod ✭✭✭✭Black Swan


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    No knowledge of any kind is possible without faith in something, even if that something is only the reliability of your own sensory perceptions. The question is never "can we know this without faith?"; it's "what faith to we have to have in order to know this?".
    There are substantial differences in the religious faith paradigm and that of scientists exhibiting confidence in knowledge obtained through the scientific method. Religion and science do not share the same epistemological status, and to claim that "No knowledge of any kind is possible without faith in something" does not establish equivalence between religious faith and scientific confidence, or the knowledge obtained thereof, and to claim that they are equivalent in epistemological meaning was terribly misleading.


  • Registered Users Posts: 9,555 ✭✭✭antiskeptic


    Prior to expressing faith in the scientific method you need to deploy faith in your own assessment capability.

    If deciding, for example, that you are capable of subjective error, and that SM is a useful way to circumvent the problem, it is you doing the assessment of self and own ability be in error.

    All knowledge rests on a personal assessment at root. With you in primary position, whatever about the casacade of tools you figure best (according to personal assessment as to their worth) to apply.

    All this to arrive at a personal sense of satisfaction that what you know constitutes knowledge.

    Since knowledge is personally arrived at thus, there is no difference in 'epistemological status'.

    There is no way to leapfrog your way past the personal root and suppose SM having an status other than that which you find satisfactory to give it.


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  • Moderators, Category Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 47,223 CMod ✭✭✭✭Black Swan



    Since knowledge is personally arrived at thus, there is no difference in 'epistemological status'.
    The theories and practices of science are fundamentally different from that of religious faith. Epistemology asks the question "how do we know what we know?" The epistemological pursuit of scientific knowledge must be subject to falsifiability, which radically differentiates religion from science in terms of method and of knowing. If they were similar, where is falsifiability (as defined by Karl Popper) prominent in religion? Does religion continuously challenge, question, and empirically test articles of faith or God's commandments, ultimately revising or replacing such articles or commandments once a preponderance of empirical evidence suggests thus (see Wallace's Wheel of Science)? In testing these articles of faith or God's commandments, how often does religion proceed as if the null hypothesis were true (i.e., that such articles of faith or God's commandments were insignificant or false)? How often do church members seriously and continuously challenge their articles of faith or God's commandments?

    All the above aside, if your original premise is false, then all that follows is moot (e.g. a house of cards). Original premise: "there is a God." Establish beyond a reasonable doubt that God exists, or the merit of continuing this discussion appears problematic.


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,021 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Black Swan wrote: »
    There are substantial differences in the religious faith paradigm and that of scientists exhibiting confidence in knowledge obtained through the scientific method. Religion and science do not share the same epistemological status, and to claim that "No knowledge of any kind is possible without faith in something" does not establish equivalence between religious faith and scientific confidence, or the knowledge obtained thereof, and to claim that they are equivalent in epistemological meaning was terribly misleading.
    How fortunate, then, that I advanced no such claim. :)

    Different epistemologies proceed from different axioms. None of the axioms can be proven (duh!) but it does not follow that they are all "of equal status', except to the trivial extent that they are all unproven. We have to make decisions about which epistemologies we will employ (if we ever want to claim to know anything at all), and this requires us to evaluate different epistemologies, their strengths, their weaknesses, their fitness to be employed in this or that field of enquiry, etc, etc. We do in fact make choices between alternative epistemologies all the time, and I suspect for the most part we do not examine closely the basis on which we do so.

    In the field of natural science, the epistemology employed by scientists enables us (given its assumptions) to draw conclusions that are attended with a very high degree of certainty. Sadly, other fields of enquiry - ethics, aesthetics, philosophy, lit. crit., "should I marry her?" - are not similarly blessed. This does not mean that the epistemology of natural science should be brought to bear in these fields. The axioms which prove so reliable and useful in the field of natural science may be less reliable, less useful or even completely irrelevant in other fields of enquiry. So the epistemology I employ to make, say, ethical decisions may not produce such certain or reliable results as the scientific method produces, but it is still nevertheless a better epistemology to employ in that context than the scientific method would be. Are the two epistemologies "equivalent"? I don't even know what that question means.


  • Moderators, Category Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 47,223 CMod ✭✭✭✭Black Swan


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    How fortunate, then, that I advanced no such claim. :)
    You were quoting antiskeptic in your quoted discussion, and I was "fortunate" too in addressing his quote within your quote. (I share your humour about third party quoting my me in this case)
    Peregrinus wrote: »
    Different epistemologies proceed from different axioms. None of the axioms can be proven (duh!) but it does not follow that they are all "of equal status', except to the trivial extent that they are all unproven.
    Yes, science does not prove anything; science only suggests. The natural sciences have more precise and valid forms of measurement than the social, behavioral, educational, business, and related disciplines; i.e., they can be more objective and less subjective than the social "sciences."
    Peregrinus wrote: »
    We have to make decisions about which epistemologies we will employ (if we ever want to claim to know anything at all), and this requires us to evaluate different epistemologies, their strengths, their weaknesses, their fitness to be employed in this or that field of enquiry, etc, etc.
    Such episteomological "decisions" were made decades ago, as codified by such scientific philosophers as Karl Popper, et al. Since then such decisions as to theories, methods, data, analysis, and results have continued to be evaluated against falsifiability, as well as other necessary conditions towards attempting to establish sufficiency. The "weaknesses" you mentioned have been reported in limitations of credible research, and often challenged by peer-reviewers during the publication process, and subsequent researches overtime.
    Peregrinus wrote: »
    We do in fact make choices between alternative epistemologies all the time, and I suspect for the most part we do not examine closely the basis on which we do so.
    Disciplines tend to reduce or eliminate such "choices between alternative epistemologies" by specifying appropriate research frameworks; e.g., biology may differ from chemistry as to their specific application of the scientific method. Of greater influence as to method are the RFPs, where only those that comply with a specified framework may be funded.
    Peregrinus wrote: »
    In the field of natural science, the epistemology employed by scientists enables us (given its assumptions) to draw conclusions that are attended with a very high degree of certainty.
    Agree.
    Peregrinus wrote: »
    This does not mean that the epistemology of natural science should be brought to bear in these fields. The axioms which prove so reliable and useful in the field of natural science may be less reliable, less useful or even completely irrelevant in other fields of enquiry.
    August Comte, et al, attempted to employ the scientific method to disciplines outside the natural, later relabeling of many disciplines as sciences (e.g., social and behavioural sciences). Unfortunately, the theories, assumptions, and measures appear to have fallen below the rigour of the natural sciences in terms of objectivity and validity. Nevertheless, the attempts away from subjectivity towards scientific objectivity by these social and behavioural disciplines appear to have more merit than armchair opinions.


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    Prior to expressing faith in the scientific method you need to deploy faith in your own assessment capability.
    Confidence with caution, not "faith."
    If deciding, for example, that you are capable of subjective error, and that SM is a useful way to circumvent the problem, it is you doing the assessment of self and own ability be in error.
    The scientific method is not all about "self." There are standardized methods to objectify the design, data collection, analysis, results, and estimate error of research conducted. Limitations are noted to increase objectivity. Just because a person or persons conduct the scientific research, especially in the natural sciences, does not imply that all that is done is subjective, or based upon "faith." The use of "self" and "faith" discussed here is begging the question (as noted above). It's a spin on words that fails to differentiate between science and faith. Or between subjectivity and objectivity of method.
    All knowledge rests on a personal assessment at root. With you in primary position, whatever about the casacade of tools you figure best (according to personal assessment as to their worth) to apply.
    The above is a hasty generalization fallacy, lacking empirical evidence to support claims. Read Karl Popper (as noted in above posts) to understand the differences between subjective and objective research. As well as the cautions used in the scientific method to improve upon objective research outcomes.
    All this to arrive at a personal sense of satisfaction that what you know constitutes knowledge.
    What matter "personal sense of satisfaction" and "know what constitutes knowledge?" These are two different things. You are confounding emotions with knowledge.
    Since knowledge is personally arrived at thus, there is no difference in 'epistemological status'.
    Combined with the 2nd to last quote above, this is a straw man fallacy. You have created a weak and ridiculous position, and then proceeded to easily knock it down, ignoring any significant differences that exist in the real world between science and faith.


  • Registered Users Posts: 26,021 ✭✭✭✭Peregrinus


    Thanks for your thoughtful response, Black Swan. I don’t want to pick up on all your points, becasue the conversation will get too sprawling (for me, at any rate), but if I may just pick up on a couple:
    Black Swan wrote: »
    Yes, science does not prove anything; science only suggests. The natural sciences have more precise and valid forms of measurement than the social, behavioral, educational, business, and related disciplines; i.e., they can be more objective and less subjective than the social "sciences."
    This is inherent in the nature of the social sciences, I think. For me, the dividing line between tne natural sciences and the social sciences is that the subjects of the latter include us ourselves; our minds, our thoughts, our actions, our choices. And these are inherently subjective factors. This isn’t a weakness or a fault in the social sciences; it’s just their defining characteristic.
    Black Swan wrote: »
    Disciplines tend to reduce or eliminate such "choices between alternative epistemologies" by specifying appropriate research frameworks; e.g., biology may differ from chemistry as to their specific application of the scientific method. Of greater influence as to method are the RFPs, where only those that comply with a specified framework may be funded.
    Disciplines do this, but I wasn’t thinking of disciplines so much as of individuals. I employ different epistemologies when addressing the questions “why won’t my car start?”, “why do I feel so low today?”, “how am I to deal with this problematic behaviour that my child is exhibiting?” and “how do I make [difficult ethical choice]?”. We all do, and we do this not (usually) as the result of training in any discipline.
    Black Swan wrote: »
    August Comte, et al, attempted to employ the scientific method to disciplines outside the natural, later relabeling of many disciplines as sciences (e.g., social and behavioural sciences). Unfortunately, the theories, assumptions, and measures appear to have fallen below the rigour of the natural sciences in terms of objectivity and validity. Nevertheless, the attempts away from subjectivity towards scientific objectivity by these social and behavioural disciplines appear to have more merit than armchair opinions.
    Ah, maybe not. This isn’t a simple binary.

    Consider a social science like, say economics. This is the study of the choices people make about the allocation of scarce resources. Obviously, it’s possible to make reliable empirical observations about relevant objective facts ; when the price of spuds rose by X% consumption fell by Y%. And if we have enough such empirical observations we can start to hypothesize explanations, and to draw conclusions which enable us to make predictions. The problem is that our predictions aren’t based just on the empirical data; they also rest on certain axioms, one of which typically is that people are rational and self-interested. To the extent that people are mostly rational and mostly self-interested, our explanations and our predictions may hold mostly good. But we’re still faced with two problems; first, what rational self-interested people view as being in their own interest may not align with what I view as being in their interest and, secondly, sometimes people are either not rational or not self-interested.

    The result of this is that if my prediction lead me to expect X in a certain situation and instead Y eventuates, this isn’t necessarily fatal to the validity of my prediction in a way that it would be in, say, physics. The unexpected result could the outcome of either of the factors just mentioned. This shows that my methodology doesn’t - and probably can’t - produce results which are as reliable as the results that the methodologies employed in physics can produce. But this doesn’t mean that my methodology isn’t substantially reliable; reliable to an extremely useful degree. And it certainly doesn’t allow us to conclude that my methodology has no more merit than armchair opinions.

    (Not sure how we got here from a consideration of the afterlife!)


  • Moderators, Category Moderators, Science, Health & Environment Moderators, Society & Culture Moderators Posts: 47,223 CMod ✭✭✭✭Black Swan


    Peregrinus wrote: »
    This is inherent in the nature of the social sciences, I think. For me, the dividing line between tne natural sciences and the social sciences is that the subjects of the latter include us ourselves; our minds, our thoughts, our actions, our choices. And these are inherently subjective factors. This isn’t a weakness or a fault in the social sciences; it’s just their defining characteristic.
    The social and behavioral disciplines may attempt to move away from the limitations that exist in the individual unit of analysis though the use of higher levels (e.g., group, organisation, county, region, nation, population). Unfortunately, some of these disciplines still cling to the case study unit, especially psychiatry, and such a level was obviously subjective. For example, when Sigmund Freud in his Civilization and Its Discontents had drawn conclusions from highly subjective cases to make claims about populations he committed an ecological fallacy. The near death experience literature that pertains to the afterlife has been at the case study unit of analysis and may be as problematic as Freud's accordingly. Also, Freud's and NDE's nonrandom, convenience sampling methods may be subject to selection bias (e.g., Freud's case studies of women were generally selected from those who could afford his fees).

    The social and behavioral disciplines have also attempted to overcome some of their limitations by increasing the rigour of data selection and analysis (e.g., big data algorithm analysis, especially as pertains to targeting customer advertising with increased buying of products and services). I have not found big data for NDE or other afterlife measures that exhibited rigourous empirical studies with reliability or validity.


  • Registered Users Posts: 252 ✭✭hgfj


    I don't believe in god or an afterlife but I used to, and when I did I sort of figured god didn't so much create the universe as become the universe. God didn't say, "Let there be light" but said,"Let me be light"


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