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14-11-2020, 16:13   #1
BarraOG
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Mac Gabhann spelling

Why is there no lenition in Mac Gabhann, like you would find in Mac Pháidín or Ní Ghríofa? Is it because Gh is silent but you still have the hard sound of the proceeding C so it pointless to have a lenition here? Also, does anyone understand why McGee is spelt McGhee in Scotland. Is Magh a word in Scottish Gaelic, hence Magh Aoidh. How is Magh pronounced?

Last edited by BarraOG; 14-11-2020 at 16:31.
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11-12-2020, 23:37   #2
deirdremf
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Quote:
Originally Posted by BarraOG View Post
Why is there no lenition in Mac Gabhann, like you would find in Mac Pháidín or Ní Ghríofa? Is it because Gh is silent but you still have the hard sound of the proceeding C so it pointless to have a lenition here? Also, does anyone understand why McGee is spelt McGhee in Scotland. Is Magh a word in Scottish Gaelic, hence Magh Aoidh. How is Magh pronounced?
Mac Gabhann, Mac Pháidín and Ní Ghríofa are three different cases.
Ní always causes lenition.

Páidín is a proper noun - a personal name in this case, and lenited in the genitive, and therefore lenited after Mac.
Gabha is not a personal name, but a common noun, and not lenited in the genitive.



I hope this is helpful.
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