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Selling Home

  • 28-09-2022 11:26pm
    #1
    Registered Users Posts: 4


    In the process of selling my home and my solicitor has asked the question

    "Can you confirm if the property was rented in the past two years?"

    Thought it was a bit strange, surely she would want to know if it were ever rented out not just in the last 2 years.

    Does anyone know the reason for this ?


    Thanks

    Gaz



Comments

  • Registered Users Posts: 1,635 ✭✭✭dennyk


    Are you in an RPZ? If so, if the property was the subject of a tenancy at any time during the past two years, the rent the new owner could charge would be restricted based on the previous rent as per the RPZ regulations. If the property has not been the subject of a tenancy in the past two years, then the RPZ restrictions don't apply and the new owner could charge market rent for the property.

    It's Revenue who will want to know if the place was ever rented out, as that would affect your PPR relief. That's between you and the tax man, though.



  • Registered Users Posts: 4 Gaz111


    Thanks, had a feeling it was that as am in a RPZ. Absolutely silly carry on by the government.



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