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  • 03-05-2019 7:16am
    #1
    Closed Accounts Posts: 339 ✭✭


    A quick one. Not sure if there is a better location to post this. With reference to the below rule, does anybody know if being on 2 weeks paternity leave (being paid solely by state in that period) in last few weeks of employment alters this

    "When a person works on a public holiday they are entitled to be paid for the day in accordance with their agreed rates. ... If an employee ceases to be employed during the week before a public holiday, having worked during the 4 weeks preceding that week, he/she is entitled to receive pay for the public holiday. "


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