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  • 19-01-2015 4:35pm
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,434 ✭✭✭


    I have an 2009 Audi A4 at the minute, going great, but due to circumstances I need to change to a slightly larger car.

    I have my eye on a Skoda Superb, 2012, 1 owner. its the same wheelbase as the A6 I think, and it meets all the needs for what I want. I've driven it a bit in the past. The A6 is out of my range, as is a 151 reg!

    So the owner of the superb is going to go for a 151 reg, and knows I'm on the lookout, and interested in his 12 reg Octavia.

    Is it better to:
    let him sell the Skoda to the dealer, and I buy it off the dealer. (who gets his mark up - on both cars, the 12 and the 151)
    buy the Skoda directly from the current owner, (the dealer trade in price will be less than if he sells the 12reg privately I would assume?) and let him buy his 151 directly. (will the dealer reduce any potential discount, as he will see this as a lost opportunity to make a profit on the traded in 12 reg skoda as he will be selling it on again)
    thanks


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 11,865 ✭✭✭✭MuppetCheck


    Make him and offer for his and he is in a better position to negotiate with the dealer. Then sell your own privately. You won't have any comeback however if there is an issue as it's a private sale - might influence your decision.


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