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Marriage and finances

sallyannesal · 2014-02-27 17:55:24

Just curious, if a married couple divorce and the woman has 50,000 euro in her own name in a bank, would the man be entitled to half? Is each person always entitled to 50%? if the man is in 200,000 euro debt, would the woman then be left with 100,000 debt? I'm just trying to understand how it works thanks.

27-02-2014 5:55pm

#1

sallyannesal

Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 17 ✭

Join Date: February 2014

Posts: 7

Just curious, if a married couple divorce and the woman has 50,000 euro in her own name in a bank, would the man be entitled to half? Is each person always entitled to 50%? if the man is in 200,000 euro debt, would the woman then be left with 100,000 debt? I'm just trying to understand how it works thanks.

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Comments

#2 27-02-2014 6:12pm

Pro Hoc Vice

Closed Accounts Posts: 6,087 ✭✭✭

Join Date: June 2013

Posts: 6072

There is no simple answer, each case is decided on its own facts, a number of issues are considered, length of marriage, what each person contributed, are their children, the position each person is in. There is no cut and dry answer.

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#3 28-02-2014 2:25am

Peregrinus

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There is no general 50/50 rule. The assets and means of the couple are considered in totality, as are the circumstances and needs of each partner, and of any children, and then assets and income get divided in any way that the court thinks meets the needs of the case. Everything, from both spouses, is on the table.

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