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Redundancy question

  • 18-01-2014 2:12pm
    #1
    Dick Turnip
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 982 ✭✭✭


    Hi just looking for some advice.

    Basically been working for the over a year on a permanent contract with my current company. Have been told that my role is being moved to our office in the UK but that the job is mine if I want it.

    Now I am considering making the move but I do want to weigh up all options. So I was wondering would I be entitled to any redundancy if I didn't make the move?

    I have it in my head that you need to be in a job for over 2 years before being entitled to redundancy? I presume the fact that they're offering me another job wouldn't come into it as the job is in another country.

    Thanks in advance.


Comments

  • #2
    Mrs OBumble
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 26,295 ✭✭✭✭Mrs OBumble


    Dick Turnip wrote: »
    I have it in my head that you need to be in a job for over 2 years before being entitled to redundancy?

    That's right - unless your contract says otherwise.


  • #3
    ABajaninCork
    Closed Accounts Posts: 8,411 ✭✭✭ABajaninCork


    A move to the UK isn't the worst option though! :) Whereabouts would you be based?

    I'd agree to move over, and look for another role here in the meantime. If nothing comes up, then take the move.

    Good luck!


  • #4
    Bandana boy
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 4,337 ✭✭✭Bandana boy


    Mrs OBumble wrote: »
    That's right - unless your contract says otherwise.

    Actually they cannot pay redundancy as per the legal definition with all the tax breaks etc if you are there less than two years.

    They could agree a settlement which would be considered fully liable to PAYE etc ,but this would be at the companies discretion and they have no legal liability.


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