Quote for damage to car

Denisejcc

Hi,

A guy bumped into the back of my car a few weeks ago. I got quotes for the damage , 1 quote is if he is paying himself and another quote is if its going through the insurance?
Ive never had a bump in the car before so Im just wondering why is there 2 quotes? Should it not be the same price regardless of how it is being paid for, its the same damage afterall?!

Sorry if this is a stupid question!!

Thanks!

:o:rolleyes:

L1011

I'd assume the "pay himself" quote is lower?

There's lot of reasons why a garage would charge less for someone paying themselves - from very legit (quicker cashflow) to very unlegit (off the books) to nefarious (enjoys screwing insurers, and hence the entire driving population by proxy).

They are from the same garage, right? And they aren't just the same quote with and without VAT included?

Nonoperational

Usualy vat included and not included.

Denisejcc

Thanks for the replies.. both quotes have VAT on them. Yeah the pay himself quote is lower. As its a friend of a friend Ile assume its a legit reason ie cashflow! :rolleyes:

PCPhoto

bring both quotes down to revenue - let them ask him how he managed to give such quotes !!

- try to get quotes from 3 different companies....for which the person will be paying (if the quote is too high they can always pass the quote to your insurance company)

Random

the fact that it's a friend would explain it for me ... he's trying to do you / the guy who hit you a favour so you can get it sorted and move on.