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Eye for an eye.

  • 08-09-2008 12:03am
    #1
    JimiTime
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭


    Mosaic law stated, eye for an eye, life for a life. Jesus changed this. Mosaic law gave terms for divorce. jesus said that only if adultery is commited can someone divorce.

    Why did Jesus change these things? If the mosaic law was from God, why did these things change with Jesus' coming?

    I'd appreciate Christian only response. Or at least, christian friendly response.


Comments

  • #2
    PDN
    Closed Accounts Posts: 13,686 ✭✭✭✭PDN


    Jimi, I think it all comes down to Progressive Revelation and Historical Context.

    Progressive Revelation means that God didn't give us the whole deal all at once. Instead he revealed Himself and His ways to the human race bit by bit. This is similar to how we learn anything at all. As a child, you begin by framing words such as 'Mamma' or 'Dada' and then progress eventually to the alphabet. We don't immediately start explaining to an infant how the subjunctive mood is conjugated. The Israelites had to learn to be a bit less nasty than their neighbours before learning how to be tolerant liberals. Therefore the 'eye for an eye' command was an improvement upon other tribes who would torture you hideously and then kill you if you accidently blinded someone.

    Historical Context simply means that we have to recognise that the Law of Moses was given to a desert tribe who were fighting for survival while surrounded by other tribes who wanted to kill them. Any tribe that turned the other cheek would last about a week.

    Hope this helps!


  • #3
    JimiTime
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    ^^Thanks PDN. Is that the only explaination you've heard, or are there other reasonings that you know of within Christianity? Just curious if there are conflicting reasonings.


  • #4
    PDN
    Closed Accounts Posts: 13,686 ✭✭✭✭PDN


    For every biblical verse there are probably many fringe groups out there with weird and wonderful interpretations - but I'm not aware of any conflicting interpretations within mainstream Christianity.

    Of course some non-Christians, or even Christians with a low view of Biblical inspiration, might just argue that Moses got it wrong.

    Some other slants on this from Christians, while not conflicting, would say:
    a) The Law of Moses was not so much a prescribed punishment as it was the maximum permissable penalty. So taking an eye for an eye was the furthest you could go in revenge, but forgiveness was still an option under the Law.
    b) It would have been pointless preaching the turning the other cheek stuff before Christ came because people lacked the power to obey such teaching. They could only do so once they had the resource of the Holy Spirit to help them (ie after Pentecost).


  • #5
    philologos
    Closed Accounts Posts: 22,479 ✭✭✭✭philologos


    PDN good work. I was reading a piece of work by the Jewish group Chabad on slavery actually, and they argue that the abolition of slavery would have caused great war, so what in Torah happened was that Moses recieved commandments to improve the welfare of slaves until a point whereby greater change could be made.


  • #6
    sorella
    Closed Accounts Posts: 923 ✭✭✭sorella


    Jesus is Mediator and Mercy, simply. Standing between us and our wrongdoing and pleading for us. His Coming changed thus the whole idea of revenge; "Render no man evil for veil.. do good to those who hate you..."

    As God the Son, that is His role, and His power and His teaching.


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  • #7
    Soul Winner
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,534 ✭✭✭Soul Winner


    JimiTime wrote: »
    Mosaic law stated, eye for an eye, life for a life. Jesus changed this.

    'Change' is not the right word me thinks. I would go with 'fullfil' instead.
    JimiTime wrote: »
    Mosaic law gave terms for divorce. jesus said that only if adultery is commited can someone divorce.

    It was Moses who said it. Jesus said it was not like this from the beginning and anyone that gives a writing of divorcement and put his wife away still committed adultery except in cases of fornication.
    JimiTime wrote: »
    Why did Jesus change these things? If the mosaic law was from God, why did these things change with Jesus' coming?

    Jesus makes it clear that it was Moses who suffered the people to put away their wives not God.

    Matt 19:7-8 "They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so."


  • #8
    JimiTime
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,418 ✭✭✭JimiTime


    Soul Winner wrote: »
    'Change' is not the right word me thinks. I would go with 'fullfil' instead.

    Hi SW. This brings up a point I've been meaning to ask. What does this mean? He 'fulfilled' the law?
    It was Moses who said it. Jesus said it was not like this from the beginning and anyone that gives a writing of divorcement and put his wife away still committed adultery except in cases of fornication.

    This raises another point I asked on here a few times. Is the Mosaic Law, Gods Law? The above would suggest not. However, would it be that God approved the Law, rather than actually dictated it? Moses, who God welcomed in all the rooms of his house, who had Gods spirit. Was it that God approved his wisdom, but not necessarily agreed with it?
    Jesus makes it clear that it was Moses who suffered the people to put away their wives not God.

    Again, see above.
    Matt 19:7-8 "They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away? He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so."

    It certainly seems that Mosaic law was from Moses at this point. However, Mosaic Law is reffered to as Gods Law also is it not? So how do we as christians view this? As mentioned, is it that God approved Moses, and thus gave weight to his decrees? Is it that God allowed certain goings on because of the people's (who constantly disobeyed him anyway).

    I think the Mosaic Law and its authority etc is a very interesting discussion.


  • #9
    santing
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 671 ✭✭✭santing


    There are a few more angles to look at:

    1. The Mosaic Law was gave authority to judges etc to uphold the law, it didn't authorize someone to hit back: "Eye for eye" is a punishment enforced by those in authority. The Lord Jesus is talking very much about our own attitude.
    2. Esp. in Matthew 5 - 7 the Lord Jesus gives examples where the Law has been taken out of context, has been distorted etc. He replies in those instances with "But I tell you"
    3. The Law of Moses was given because the people challenged God: "All He tells us we will do." It could be argued that only because of this they received a burden they couldn't bear.
    4. The Law is given to the Jews - not the Gentiles. The Law is not given to Christians since we died. We (Christians) are dead so the law does not apply to us. The life we live is Christ.
    5. Paul says that the Law is for Law breakers, not righteous people


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