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Declaring damage

  • 29-02-2008 9:35am
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,728 ✭✭✭


    Hey folks,

    While on on t e look out for a 2nd hand motor the following crossed my mind.

    Does a seller have to declare that the car was in an accident and was repaired, either just cosmetic, or more sctructural that needs jig work while it was in their posession?

    Might be a bit different with garages of they took the car as a trade in, in good faith.?

    Anyways just curious is all.


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 22,584 ✭✭✭✭Steve


    Not unless you specifically ask them.

    Garages have to sell a car thats roadworthy - that could mean crashed and repaired.

    Private sellers can sell any POS and there's no comeback if you spot something later.

    Cavtet emptor!


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,728 ✭✭✭brightkane


    say i specifically ask a garage, and its repaired and roadworthy, do they have to say same if they know it?

    same question to a private individual?


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 22,584 ✭✭✭✭Steve


    If you specificaly ask a garage, they can't lie to you about it. Sale of goods act applies to any business selling any product to a consumer.
    It also implies that the car must be roadworthy and be expected to last for a reasonable time.

    None of this applies to a private seller - only option would be to sue them afterwards if they lied about a car not being crashed. It would probably cost you more than you'd get in compensation.

    Personally, I wouldn't buy privately without having the car checked out by a decent mechanic. If you're willing to part with a few grand for a car, it might be the best €50 you ever spent.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,728 ✭✭✭brightkane


    yeah i have done a few checks on it already and also have a mechanic luking at it today.

    Thanks for the info


  • Moderators, Politics Moderators Posts: 41,211 Mod ✭✭✭✭Seth Brundle


    Isn't it the case that if a dealer sells a car and tells the buyer that it was never involved in a crash, and it turns out that it was and the dealer genuinely didn't know, the dealer is at fault and the buyer has full comeback?


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 22,584 ✭✭✭✭Steve


    kbannon wrote: »
    Isn't it the case that if a dealer sells a car and tells the buyer that it was never involved in a crash, and it turns out that it was and the dealer genuinely didn't know, the dealer is at fault and the buyer has full comeback?
    That's why God gave us solictors:D


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