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lens Q

  • 11-11-2007 12:51pm
    #1
    Closed Accounts Posts: 986 ✭✭✭


    Hi all just a quick Q about something that is bugging me about magnification... i know what they mean by zoom.

    I read somewhere that the human eye equates to roughly a 50mm lems.... so would that mean that a 100mm lens would have a magnification of 2?

    and.. if i was say.... 10m from a subject with a 100mm and the magnification was 2... would this be the same as being 5m from the same subject with a 50mm lens??? that is assuming that a 100mm lens has a mag of 2....

    sorry if its a dozey Q but i had to ask :D

    p.s....we all know what happens when you assume..... it makes an ass outta u and me


Comments

  • Moderators, Education Moderators, Music Moderators Posts: 10,686 Mod ✭✭✭✭melekalikimaka


    think your right


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 906 ✭✭✭FuzzyWuzzyWazza


    Sounds right to me, but I am not really sure. One thing worth remembering is that for most Digital SLR's it equates to 35mm not 50mm due to the CCD being smaller than 35mm film. Unless you have one of the few cameras with CCD's that are the same size as film, but these are supposed to be very expensive.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 10,263 ✭✭✭✭Borderfox


    A 500mm lens has a magnification of 10x so something 10m away would be the same as 1m. Sounds right to me too. Heres some evidence. Hope this helps, also most DSLR's have a crop factor.

    50mm
    IMG_7176.jpg

    500mm
    IMG_7175.jpg


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 2,355 ✭✭✭JMcL


    Yep, you're right if you're talking purely in terms of magnification. There're other factors which come into it as well, such as depth of field, which decreases as focal length increases. You can see this pretty well on BorderFox's two images


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