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Ruling question...sort of

  • 15-02-2007 12:19am
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,092 ✭✭✭


    Last night, playing in the €10 rebuy Sat to next week's Irish Open Sat. We're not far off the bubble. Blinds are 400/800. I make it 2400 utg. Folded around to SB, who says call and then throws in 400, thinking he only had to complete. He's informed of his error, says fold and mucks his cards. He then realises that he said Call, and asks the dealer if he has to put in the additional 1200. I say i'm ok with him not having to put in the 1200 because it was very obvious that he didn't realise i had raised. (i may not have been as forgiving if i wasn't the chip leader at the time).
    In the mean time the dealer has asked for a ruling, and Alex says the 1200 has to go in. Now while i'm sure that this is the correct ruling, the pot was then awarded to me after the BB folded.

    Now the question:
    Should a flop have been dealt (giving him the opportunity to play the board)?, given that he had called and essentially paid to see the flop. Or by mucking his hand at that stage, did that end his participation in the hand?
    This wasn't mentioned at the time, and it only occurred to me today.


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 3,782 ✭✭✭Scotty #


    if he has fully paid up for the round then he is entitled to play the board even if his cards have been mucked. But if you rasie the flop.... I suppose he'd have to fold or match it while still only playing the board.


  • Business & Finance Moderators, Entertainment Moderators Posts: 32,387 Mod ✭✭✭✭DeVore


    Did the cards hit the muck? If so they can't be retrieved.

    If they were just tossed accross the line then they can be pushed back towards the player.

    That would be my ruling anyway...


    DeV.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,092 ✭✭✭Glowingmind


    The cards were mucked


  • Business & Finance Moderators, Entertainment Moderators Posts: 32,387 Mod ✭✭✭✭DeVore


    Am I missing something?? Theres no "playing the board" on a flop... You win having the only live hand. Simple as...

    As far as playing the board in other situations (such as all in and the dealer takes your cards). TD's seem divided on it. Some let it go because it seems terrible harsh not to let a man at least play the board. Others insist on a live hand being shown to claim a pot and since you dont have one, you can't win.
    Neither of these apply to the above issue (unless I'm misreading something).

    DeV.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,092 ✭✭✭Glowingmind


    You didn't misread, i just wasn't sure what constitues still being involved in the hand.


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 5,124 ✭✭✭NickyOD


    He can't play the board. That's just silly. Poker rules 101: Play A has cards, Player B has no cards. Player A wins.


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