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Under Raise Question

  • 20-01-2006 8:25pm
    #1
    Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 61 ✭✭


    I was playing the freeroll the other night. I can't remember all the details but it went a bit like this.

    I was BB, mid position raise then an under raise from another player. I had decided I was going all-in after the mid position raise and said all in.

    I was then told I couldn't go all-in because of the under raise and I could only call.

    I still can't figure out how this could be correct?

    Can somebody enlighten me please?


    Regards

    Deu


Comments

  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 7,501 ✭✭✭BrokenArrows


    You should have been able to go all in if there were more players than you and the under raiser.

    A side pot would have then been created.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 403 ✭✭Lex


    Playing what freeroll? where?

    This only applies if the action has already passed you.
    i.e. if you call the mid-position raise and the all-in under-raiser acts after you.
    Then you can only call as the betting is locked.
    Afaik if you are in the BB and have yet to act you can push all-in as normal.

    http://www.vcpoker.com/content/Glossary/UnderRaise.html


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 3,362 ✭✭✭Hitman Actual


    A raise must always at least double the previous bet/raise, and the general rule is that the betting is not re-opened with an under-raise. In the case you're talking about, I assume the under-raise was all-in? If so, then you cant re-raise.

    It may seem like a strange rule, but afair there's a good reason for it... I just cant for the life of me remember what the reason is.

    LEX wrote:
    This only applies if the action has already passed you.


    Good point, but in this case he was the BB, so in theory he had already acted.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 61 ✭✭Deu


    Now that I think of it I might not have been the big blind. I can't remember the hand exactly just that I wanted to react to the mid-position raise with an All-in.

    If I wasn’t the BB and had just called, then a player raised and another under raised before it got around to me should I have been able to go all-in?

    Regards

    Deu


  • Users Awaiting Email Confirmation Posts: 3,129 ✭✭✭Samson


    Deu wrote:
    I was playing the freeroll the other night. I can't remember all the details but it went a bit like this.

    I was BB, mid position raise then an under raise from another player. I had decided I was going all-in after the mid position raise and said all in.

    I was then told I couldn't go all-in because of the under raise and I could only call.

    I still can't figure out how this could be correct?

    Can somebody enlighten me please?

    Was your hand K6 of spades by any chance?


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  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 403 ✭✭Lex


    Deu wrote:
    If I wasn’t the BB and had just called, then a player raised and another under raised before it got around to me should I have been able to go all-in?

    No.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 331 ✭✭sendic


    everyone has to be given the opportunity to raise so in this case i think the BB would be allowed to make his allin raise.

    what i cant remember is what would happen in a situation like this: UTG raises, MP reraises, button under raises allin and the blinds fold. im not sure if UTG is only allowed to call the under raise because he has already bet or if MP1s reriase entitles UTG to raise now.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 1,080 ✭✭✭Crumbs


    Deu wrote:
    If I wasn’t the BB and had just called, then a player raised and another under raised before it got around to me should I have been able to go all-in?
    Yes.


  • Registered Users, Registered Users 2 Posts: 8,806 ✭✭✭Lafortezza


    A raise must always at least double the previous bet/raise, and the general rule is that the betting is not re-opened with an under-raise. In the case you're talking about, I assume the under-raise was all-in? If so, then you cant re-raise.

    Good point, but in this case he was the BB, so in theory he had already acted.
    If the blinds are 50/100 and you're in the BB. MP1 raises to 1000, MP2 goes all-in for 1500, you can still reraise from the BB if you want to. You haven't acted yet (posting the BB doesn't count).


    If you were to call MP2's 1500 all-in, the action would come back around to MP1 and now he couldn't reraise because of the underaise by MP2.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 3,362 ✭✭✭Hitman Actual


    lafortezza wrote:
    If the blinds are 50/100 and you're in the BB. MP1 raises to 1000, MP2 goes all-in for 1500, you can still reraise from the BB if you want to. You haven't acted yet (posting the BB doesn't count).

    Fair enough... I actually wasn't too sure myself even as I was typing it.


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 266 ✭✭bmc


    sendic wrote:
    everyone has to be given the opportunity to raise so in this case i think the BB would be allowed to make his allin raise.

    what i cant remember is what would happen in a situation like this: UTG raises, MP reraises, button under raises allin and the blinds fold. im not sure if UTG is only allowed to call the under raise because he has already bet or if MP1s reriase entitles UTG to raise now.

    If UTG has been fully raised by MP then UTG can still raise again but he must go at least double the all-in or go all-in himself.

    If UTG just calls, MP can only call.


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