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Employment equality question

  • 04-07-2011 6:02pm
    #1
    Registered Users Posts: 314 ✭✭


    I need some advice on reporting somebody for breaking employment equality law.

    I am working for a national company in a fairly large regional office. Previously the hiring of new staff would have been done by means of an aptitude test and an interview. A list would be drawn up of successful candidates. These candidates would receive a letter in the mail telling them that they were successful in their job application, and they would be called to report for duty in due course. Over the next few months, as positions became available, these candidates would be called to report for duty and once the list became exhausted, the process would start all over again.

    Since the economic downturn, this process has stopped. I know of 2 people who had been told they were successful in their job application and had been put on a list, only to receive a letter a few months later stating that this list was being abolished and their job was no longer pending. Further to this, all new positions that have become available have not been advertised, and seem to have been filled by people who are friendly with our regional office manager.

    Then this morning when I arrived at work I was absolutely shocked to see the son of our regional manager reporting for his first day of work.

    I am just wondering if there is any way that I can report my regional manager to an employment equality body while remaining anonymous, and if so, would the complaint be taking seriously. It would have to be anonymous as this man has a reputation for being ruthless, and I would fear for my own job if he found out I had reported him.


Comments

  • Closed Accounts Posts: 9,897 ✭✭✭MagicSean


    I don't get how this is an equality issue.


  • Registered Users Posts: 314 ✭✭Donutz


    Seanbeag1 wrote: »
    I don't get how this is an equality issue.
    Is it not an equality issue since the manager is failing to advertise the vacant positions to all relevant candidates and instead giving the positions to his friends and family?


  • Registered Users Posts: 1,529 ✭✭✭234


    Still not an equality. Unless there is discrimination based on the 9 specified grounds in the Employment Equality Act then it's probably alright. Can you imagine the fuss employers would kick up if the government tried to dictate hiring practices.


  • Registered Users Posts: 10,150 ✭✭✭✭Marcusm


    It might b contrary to company policy but not generally contrary to law if preference is given to family provided it's not related to the protected equality classes which given that there was no advertising or publication of the position seems unlikely.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 37 honeyvale


    Is it not so that all vacancies have to be advertised?


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  • Closed Accounts Posts: 2,857 ✭✭✭Reloc8


    No.

    You can't discriminate against somebody on certain specified grounds. This person is allegedly discriminating against anyone who is not a friend of his. Not being a friend of his is not a specified ground.


  • Closed Accounts Posts: 5,451 ✭✭✭Delancey


    OP - private companies can use Mediums to select employees if they wish and so long as they don't discriminate on grounds of sex , religion , race , marital status , etc then they are breaking no laws.
    Some semi-state bodies have a policy of advertising vacancies ( though in my experience they are the worst offenders when it comes to 'pull' ) , I think this is where some people make the mistaken assumption that ALL positions are advertised.


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