Advertisement
If you have a new account but are having problems posting or verifying your account, please email us on hello@boards.ie for help. Thanks :)
Hello all! Please ensure that you are posting a new thread or question in the appropriate forum. The Feedback forum is overwhelmed with questions that are having to be moved elsewhere. If you need help to verify your account contact hello@boards.ie
Hi all,
Vanilla are planning an update to the site on April 24th (next Wednesday). It is a major PHP8 update which is expected to boost performance across the site. The site will be down from 7pm and it is expected to take about an hour to complete. We appreciate your patience during the update.
Thanks all.

Does time exist?

1246711

Comments

  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    But it's the same universe. It cannot be an both real and "just an abstraction". Either an event is real, or it is not. It can't be real for one person, and an abstraction for another.

    There is an issue of the psychological "arrow" of time, but that is a separate issue to relativity, and would only add confusion if it were brought up now. Also remember that our "observers" are infinitely precise instruments, and not beings with psychological considerations.

    It isn't the event that is an abstraction, it's the designation of it as being in "the past" that is. Events can only happen in the present and all reference frames only exist in the present, just as the ifinitely precise instruments can only take measurements in the present.

    If the universe were to cease to exist now, then all reference frames would cease to exist in their respective present moments.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Just wondering what the case would be if, in the thought experiment, a cable was connected to the train when Rod A passes by Observer, with part of the cable being coiled on the ground, meaning that the cable is moving relative to itself. Would part of the cable be in the present, while part of it be in the past?

    Where would the part of the cable that is accelerating be? If it was fitted with light detectors along its entire length which sphere of light would be detected?

    I'm just trying to get a better understanding of the interface between reference frames.


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    If Observer 1 knew how much the markings would be contracted by, could he not calculate how much of the ruler had been displaced i.e. how much the ball has moved relative to the ruler, and vice versa?

    He could. But this would not tell him whether the ball moved or not. "Relative to the ruler" means the ruler could have moved, the ball could have moved, or a combination of the two.
    Would that make the lightning bolt, on it's path from the clounds to the pole a series of events then?

    Yes. Any location with a time label is an event.
    If so, would it be travelling perpendicular to the direction of motion and so not be contracted, until it strikes the pole? I'm just wondering would that lead to a disconnect in Observer 1's reference frame, between the lightning bolt and it's striking of the pole?

    All causal relationships and coincident events are preserved. If lightning strikes a pole in one frame of reference, it will do so in all frames of reference. All that would happen is the series of events that is the lightning strike (x,y,z,t), would appear in the other observers reference frame at (x'.y',z',t').
    How does Observer 1 reconcile the fact that there must also be an expanding sphere of light centred on the pole? Does that mean that there are two distinct sphere's of expanding light?

    All he has to do is accept that his co-ordinate system will label locations and times differently to other observers' co-ordinate systems. Under his co-ordinate system, the rod is moving, so it will not remain at the centre of the light wave. Under observer 2's co-ordinate system, the rod is not moving, so it will remain at the centre of the light wave.
    The sphere of light centred at ɣL/2 won't cross ɣL/2 length of track, it will only cross about (ɣL/2)(v/c) = ɣL/10 length of track. This is probably the wrong deduction, and therefore the wrong question but is that the expected contraction; that ɣL/2 should contract to ɣL/10 at 0.8c?

    As stated earlier: "Since causality and coincident events must be the same in all reference frames, both observer 1 and observer 2 would agree about what the track ruler would register. Namely, (4/9)(L/2) = 4L/18, so you were close."

    But the track will be warped such that the marking of 4L/18 on the track, when measured with his proper ruler, will actually be a distance of ɣL/2 from the lightning strike on the rod. He can take into account the optical effects due to the motion of the track (his image of the track ruler is effectively made up of different sections at different times), and calculate when the lightning struck. He and observer 2 will not agree on this "when".
    EDIT: how does the roation and orbit of the earht affect the length contraction for both observers?

    The calculations can be carried out from any frame of reference, such as the centre of the earth, the sun, the galaxy Etc. and the transformations will always preserve causality, the speed of light Etc. Though a complete treatment of rotating frames of reference requires us to move from special to general relativity. When you spin around, from your perspective, you are stationary and everything is moving. The stars all rotate above you at speeds far faster than C. But that is for anther day, and would only confuse matters more.
    It isn't the event that is an abstraction, it's the designation of it as being in "the past" that is. Events can only happen in the present and all reference frames only exist in the present, just as the ifinitely precise instruments can only take measurements in the present.

    If the universe were to cease to exist now, then all reference frames would cease to exist in their respective present moments.

    The present is just as much an abstraction as the past or the future. If an event happens in the present of one frame of reference, has yet to happen in the future of another frame of reference, and has already happened in the past of a third frame of reference, which present is real and which is an abstraction?


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    He could. But this would not tell him whether the ball moved or not. "Relative to the ruler" means the ruler could have moved, the ball could have moved, or a combination of the two.
    but what if, from the perspective of the observer, the ball is at rest?
    Morbert wrote: »
    All causal relationships and coincident events are preserved. If lightning strikes a pole in one frame of reference, it will do so in all frames of reference. All that would happen is the series of events that is the lightning strike (x,y,z,t), would appear in the other observers reference frame at (x'.y',z',t').
    does it not matter then if other events are not moving in the direction of motion?

    Morbert wrote: »
    All he has to do is accept that his co-ordinate system will label locations and times differently to other observers' co-ordinate systems. Under his co-ordinate system, the rod is moving, so it will not remain at the centre of the light wave. Under observer 2's co-ordinate system, the rod is not moving, so it will remain at the centre of the light wave.
    But the moving rod moves through his co-ordinate system, and he will know that there must be an expanding sphere centred on the rod also, so regardless of how another observer labels it, the two spheres should be connected, no?

    Morbert wrote: »
    As stated earlier: "Since causality and coincident events must be the same in all reference frames, both observer 1 and observer 2 would agree about what the track ruler would register. Namely, (4/9)(L/2) = 4L/18, so you were close."

    But the track will be warped such that the marking of 4L/18 on the track, when measured with his proper ruler, will actually be a distance of ɣL/2 from the lightning strike on the rod. He can take into account the optical effects due to the motion of the track (his image of the track ruler is effectively made up of different sections at different times), and calculate when the lightning struck. He and observer 2 will not agree on this "when".
    but the light will only have crossed a length of track measuring ɣL/10, which doesn't equal 2L/9, so the information encoded by the light won't include a marking of 4L/18.

    Morbert wrote: »
    The calculations can be carried out from any frame of reference, such as the centre of the earth, the sun, the galaxy Etc. and the transformations will always preserve causality, the speed of light Etc. Though a complete treatment of rotating frames of reference requires us to move from special to general relativity. When you spin around, from your perspective, you are stationary and everything is moving. The stars all rotate above you at speeds far faster than C. But that is for anther day, and would only confuse matters more.
    No bother, I'll try and get my head around that as well cheers. I was just wondering how it would affect our Observers, as you mentioned that even if Observer 1 concluded that it was he that was moving and not Observer 2, that it wouldn't strictly speaking be true due to the rotation of the earth, the solar system, the galaxy, etc.


    Morbert wrote: »
    The present is just as much an abstraction as the past or the future. If an event happens in the present of one frame of reference, has yet to happen in the future of another frame of reference, and has already happened in the past of a third frame of reference, which present is real and which is an abstraction?

    "The "past" of a reference frame is an abstraction, as is "the future"; each reference frame only exists in the present; so it is the "yet to happen" and the "already happened" that are the abstractions. Whatever is happening in each reference frame when the "universal pause button" is pushed; that collection of present reference frames would represent the overall present, no one reference frame is superior to another, so no single reference frame is more true than another.


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    but what if, from the perspective of the observer, the ball is at rest?

    Then the ball is at rest from the perspective of the observer.

    does it not matter then if other events are not moving in the direction of motion?

    No.
    But the moving rod moves through his co-ordinate system, and he will know that there must be an expanding sphere centred on the rod also, so regardless of how another observer labels it, the two spheres should be connected, no?

    Why must there be an expanding sphere centred on the rod? The expanding sphere of sound from an ambulance is not centred on the ambulance.
    but the light will only have crossed a length of track measuring ɣL/10, which doesn't equal 2L/9, so the information encoded by the light won't include a marking of 4L/18.

    I think you're losing track of what it is you're trying to argue.

    The light will have crossed a track length of L/2 - 2L/9 = 5L/18. But this will not be an indication of the distance light has travelled, since the track is moving, and the track markings are too small. When observer 1 uses a non-moving, proper ruler, he will measure a distance of ɣL/2. Observer 2 will be of the opinion that the track ruler is correct, and the train ruler is incorrect, so light has only travelled a distance of 5L/18 according to him. But neither is more correct than the other.
    No bother, I'll try and get my head around that as well cheers. I was just wondering how it would affect our Observers, as you mentioned that even if Observer 1 concluded that it was he that was moving and not Observer 2, that it wouldn't strictly speaking be true due to the rotation of the earth, the solar system, the galaxy, etc.

    This is what is meant by there is no absolute "true" reference frame. Any reference frame is just as accurate as any other. Just as there is no "true" loudness of a radio.
    "The "past" of a reference frame is an abstraction, as is "the future"; each reference frame only exists in the present; so it is the "yet to happen" and the "already happened" that are the abstractions. Whatever is happening in each reference frame when the "universal pause button" is pushed; that collection of present reference frames would represent the overall present, no one reference frame is superior to another, so no single reference frame is more true than another.

    So when the pause button is pressed, is the event "happening", "yet to happen", or "already happened"? Each reference frame has a different present. This means what is in the future and abstract according to one frame of reference, is real according to another. Which present is more real?

    In fact, different reference frames will not even agree on when the pause button is pushed. The pushing of the pause button must obviously occur in the "present". But one frame's present is another's future, and another's past. The paused button is pushed "now", but according to which "now"?


  • Advertisement
  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    Then the ball is at rest from the perspective of the observer.
    OK, so it wouldn't be a case of not knowing whether the ball has moved a little and/or the ruler has moved a little? Measuring the displacement of the ruler should show how much relative movement there was.

    Morbert wrote: »
    Why must there be an expanding sphere centred on the rod? The expanding sphere of sound from an ambulance is not centred on the ambulance.
    If there is an observer standing at the rod when the lightning strikes, and is at rest relative to the rod, won't there have to be an expanding sphere of light centred on that Observer, who Observer 1 will see passing through his reference frame.


    Morbert wrote: »
    I think you're losing track of what it is you're trying to argue.

    The light will have crossed a track length of L/2 - 2L/9 = 5L/18. But this will not be an indication of the distance light has travelled, since the track is moving, and the track markings are too small. When observer 1 uses a non-moving, proper ruler, he will measure a distance of ɣL/2. Observer 2 will be of the opinion that the track ruler is correct, and the train ruler is incorrect, so light has only travelled a distance of 5L/18 according to him. But neither is more correct than the other.
    I think I'm losing sight of who will measure what, plus my maths might be a bit off.

    I might be wrong in this, but if the front of the sphere of light, centred ɣL/2 from Observer 1, travels out from the pole at the speed of light, but the pole follows behind the front of the sphere at a ratio of 4:5, or 4/5, wouldn't that mean that the light will only ever be 1/5 of the overall distance [travelled] ahead of the pole, which would be ɣL/10, or whatever the corresponding distance would be when translated into terms of L?

    The 5L/18 would represent the distance travelled by the sphere of light if it was centred at the pole.

    Morbert wrote: »
    This is what is meant by there is no absolute "true" reference frame. Any reference frame is just as accurate as any other. Just as there is no "true" loudness of a radio.
    With regard to the radio, it depends here on what you mean by loudness. It's correct that no one observer can claim rights to the "true" loudness of the radio, but the expanding sphere of sound (if that is how it propagates) exists throughout the room, not just in the ear drum of one listener. Each listener makes up just part of the true state of the room, without any listener being able to claim ownership of the true state.


    Morbert wrote: »
    So when the pause button is pressed, is the event "happening", "yet to happen", or "already happened"? Each reference frame has a different present. This means what is in the future and abstract according to one frame of reference, is real according to another. Which present is more real?

    In fact, different reference frames will not even agree on when the pause button is pushed. The pushing of the pause button must obviously occur in the "present". But one frame's present is another's future, and another's past. The paused button is pushed "now", but according to which "now"?

    No one present is more real than the other, they are all equally real; there is no future in any reference frame, as every reference frame exists in the present. To talk about the future or the past of any reference frame is to talk about an abstract concept. The "now" in which the button is pushed is all of their nows, as they all exist in the present; it is right across the universe. It doesn't matter that they don't agree on the content of the present, because all of them only exist in the present and will only measure the present when the button is pressed.


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    OK, so it wouldn't be a case of not knowing whether the ball has moved a little and/or the ruler has moved a little? Measuring the displacement of the ruler should show how much relative movement there was.

    It would be a case of not knowing whether the ball has moved and/or the ruler has moved. But yes, it would show how much relative movement there was. I.e. It would show observer 1 what observer 2 would measure.
    If there is an observer standing at the rod when the lightning strikes, and is at rest relative to the rod, won't there have to be an expanding sphere of light centred on that Observer, who Observer 1 will see passing through his reference frame.

    In the frame of reference of observer 3, the sphere will be centred on the rod. It will be centred on the rod in any frame of reference with stationary rods. In any frame of reference with moving rods, the sphere will not be centred on the rod. This is not a contradiction, and is no more significant than two observers disagreeing on the loudness of a radio.
    I think I'm losing sight of who will measure what, plus my maths might be a bit off.

    I might be wrong in this, but if the front of the sphere of light, centred ɣL/2 from Observer 1, travels out from the pole at the speed of light, but the pole follows behind the front of the sphere at a ratio of 4:5, or 4/5, wouldn't that mean that the light will only ever be 1/5 of the overall distance [travelled] ahead of the pole, which would be ɣL/10, or whatever the corresponding distance would be when translated into terms of L?

    We were using the markings on the track (which would not be accurate in observer 1's frame of reference). If we are talking about the actual distance measured by observer 1's own ruler, then you would be right. Yes the light will be a distance of 1/5 ahead of the pole. So when the light reaches observer 1, the pole will be ɣL/10 from the observer.

    In short, both observers must agree on what each ruler says. But they will disagree on which ruler is correct.
    With regard to the radio, it depends here on what you mean by loudness. It's correct that no one observer can claim rights to the "true" loudness of the radio, but the expanding sphere of sound (if that is how it propagates) exists throughout the room, not just in the ear drum of one listener. Each listener makes up just part of the true state of the room, without any listener being able to claim ownership of the true state.

    The conclusion is even stronger. It's not just that no one can claim rights to the "true loudness". It's that there is no "true loudness". The state of the expanding sphere of sound does not have a loudness associated with it. So by analogy, no one observer can claim rights to the "true" present because there is no true present. The true state of the universe is the set of all events with no past, present, or future, and different users will place different events in the categories of their own co-ordinate system's past, present, and future.
    No one present is more real than the other, they are all equally real; there is no future in any reference frame, as every reference frame exists in the present. To talk about the future or the past of any reference frame is to talk about an abstract concept. The "now" in which the button is pushed is all of their nows, as they all exist in the present; it is right across the universe. It doesn't matter that they don't agree on the content of the present, because all of them only exist in the present and will only measure the present when the button is pressed.

    But the present events of one reference frame will have the future events of another reference frame. Are these events real or abstract? If they are real, it means events that are in the future of reference frames are real. If they are abstract, then events that are in the present of reference frames are abstract. They cannot be both real and abstract.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    It would be a case of not knowing whether the ball has moved and/or the ruler has moved. But yes, it would show how much relative movement there was. I.e. It would show observer 1 what observer 2 would measure.
    but if we stipulate that the either/or is at rest, then we should know which one is moving, no?

    Morbert wrote: »
    In the frame of reference of observer 3, the sphere will be centred on the rod. It will be centred on the rod in any frame of reference with stationary rods. In any frame of reference with moving rods, the sphere will not be centred on the rod. This is not a contradiction, and is no more significant than two observers disagreeing on the loudness of a radio.
    but if Observer 3 passes through Observer 1's reference frame, Observer 1 would know that there must be a sphere of light centred on Observer 3/rod B as well.

    I think the difference between this and the loudness of the radio is that there is just one sphere of sound centred at the radio, as opposed to the same sphere having two different centres.


    Morbert wrote: »
    We were using the markings on the track (which would not be accurate in observer 1's frame of reference). If we are talking about the actual distance measured by observer 1's own ruler, then you would be right. Yes the light will be a distance of 1/5 ahead of the pole. So when the light reaches observer 1, the pole will be ɣL/10 from the observer.

    In short, both observers must agree on what each ruler says. But they will disagree on which ruler is correct.
    but would both Observers agree on what the track ruler says? I'm not sure if my reasoning here is correct.

    In Observer 1's reference frame, with the light only ever making it 1/5 of the overall distance ahead of the rod, it will only encode the graduation of the track corresponding to a distance of (1/5)(ɣL/2).

    In Observer 2's reference frame, with the expanding sphere centred on the rod, the light will travel a lenght of track measuring 5L/18 and will encode that graduated length.

    If both observers must agre on what the track ruler says, then ɣL/10 should equal 5L/18.

    ɣL/10 = 5L/18

    (180) ɣL/10 = (180)5L/18

    18ɣL = 50L

    As ɣL < L, the above is incorrect.


    Morbert wrote: »
    The conclusion is even stronger. It's not just that no one can claim rights to the "true loudness". It's that there is no "true loudness". The state of the expanding sphere of sound does not have a loudness associated with it. So by analogy, no one observer can claim rights to the "true" present because there is no true present. The true state of the universe is the set of all events with no past, present, or future, and different users will place different events in the categories of their own co-ordinate system's past, present, and future.

    That there is no "true loudness" or that no one observer can claim rights to the "true present" is not in dispute. "Loudness" is dependent on the observer's loaction with resepct to the sound; but there is a true sphere of sound which is not localised to one point in the room, but spreads throughout the room.

    No one observer can claim rights to the true present, because the present state of the universe is not localised to their reference frame, it covers all reference frames in existence.


    Morbert wrote: »
    But the present events of one reference frame will have the future events of another reference frame. Are these events real or abstract? If they are real, it means events that are in the future of reference frames are real. If they are abstract, then events that are in the present of reference frames are abstract. They cannot be both real and abstract.
    The present events of any reference frame are real, "the future events of another reference frame" are abstract, not because the events themselves aren't real but because the notion of "the future of another reference frame" is abstract.


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    but if we stipulate that the either/or is at rest, then we should know which one is moving, no?

    Yes. So the track ruler is moving in one frame of reference, and therefore not accurately measuring the distance light travelled with respect to observer 1. The ruler is stationary in another frame of reference, and therefore accurately measuring the distance light travelled with respect to observer 2. The train ruler, likewise, accurately measures the distance light travelled with respect to observer 1, but not observer 2.
    but if Observer 3 passes through Observer 1's reference frame, Observer 1 would know that there must be a sphere of light centred on Observer 3/rod B as well.

    There is no passing through reference frames. This would only happen if observer 3 adopted the same velocity of observer 1.
    I think the difference between this and the loudness of the radio is that there is just one sphere of sound centred at the radio, as opposed to the same sphere having two different centres.

    The sphere has two different "loudnesses", and sphere of light has different centres. The rod, in other words, has two different locations. Just as your computer is "near" in your frame of reference, but "far" in my frame of reference.
    but would both Observers agree on what the track ruler says? I'm not sure if my reasoning here is correct.

    Yes they would. They would both also agree on what the train ruler says. Observer 2 would say the track ruler is correct. Observer 1 would say the train ruler is correct.
    In Observer 1's reference frame, with the light only ever making it 1/5 of the overall distance ahead of the rod, it will only encode the graduation of the track corresponding to a distance of (1/5)(ɣL/2).

    In Observer 2's reference frame, with the expanding sphere centred on the rod, the light will travel a lenght of track measuring 5L/18 and will encode that graduated length.

    If both observers must agre on what the track ruler says, then ɣL/10 should equal 5L/18.

    ɣL/10 = 5L/18

    (180) ɣL/10 = (180)5L/18

    18ɣL = 50L

    As ɣL < L, the above is incorrect.

    The above is incorrect because you are conflating the two rulers. We will only consider the track ruler.

    Observer 1 passes the 0 mark on the ruler (The midpoint) at t' = 0 and meets the light at t2' = ɣt2(1 - v^2/c^2) (This was derived in post # 54).

    t2' = ɣt2(1 - v^2/c^2) = t2/ɣ = 5L/18cɣ

    In this time, the track has travelled a distance of

    5L/18cɣ * v = 5Lv/18cɣ = 5L/18ɣ(c/v) = 5L/18ɣ(4/5) = 4L/18ɣ

    But since the track is contracted, it will measure the larger distance of ɣ4L/18ɣ = 4L/18.

    This is in agreement with observer 2.

    A similar calculation can be performed to show that both observers will agree with what the train ruler says.

    That there is no "true loudness" or that no one observer can claim rights to the "true present" is not in dispute. "Loudness" is dependent on the observer's loaction with resepct to the sound; but there is a true sphere of sound which is not localised to one point in the room, but spreads throughout the room.

    No one observer can claim rights to the true present, because the present state of the universe is not localised to their reference frame, it covers all reference frames in existence.

    The present events of any reference frame are real, "the future events of another reference frame" are abstract, not because the events themselves aren't real but because the notion of "the future of another reference frame" is abstract.

    Your first birthday is a present event of a reference frame. You typing a response yesterday is a present event of a reference frame. You reading this is a present event of a reference frame. If you accept that all these events are real (not just you reading this), then there is no major dispute.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    Yes. So the track ruler is moving in one frame of reference, and therefore not accurately measuring the distance light travelled with respect to observer 1. The ruler is stationary in another frame of reference, and therefore accurately measuring the distance light travelled with respect to observer 2. The train ruler, likewise, accurately measures the distance light travelled with respect to observer 1, but not observer 2.
    But in the specific instance of determining whether both observers will read the same measurement on the track ruler what we are interested in is not how much the light has travelled with repsect to Observer 1, but rather how much the light has travelled with respect to the track, to see how much of the track has been illuminated by the light.
    Morbert wrote: »
    There is no passing through reference frames. This would only happen if observer 3 adopted the same velocity of observer 1.
    "passing through reference frames" may be the wrong way to phrase it, but Observer 2 makes up part of Observer 1's reference frame, just as the rods do, and vice versa.

    Morbert wrote: »
    The sphere has two different "loudnesses", and sphere of light has different centres. The rod, in other words, has two different locations. Just as your computer is "near" in your frame of reference, but "far" in my frame of reference.
    with regard to the sphere(s), if it is the same sphere, with different centres, then it won't necessarily be a sphere - I picture it to be somewhat like how a wormhole is traditionally depicted.

    Also, to say that the computer (or the rod) has two locations is somewhat of a misnomer, I think, because it blurs the lines between what is meant by "location"; just because we are standing different distances from it, it doesn't mean it has two locations. If you superimpose a theoretical, mathematical co-ordinate system on reality, and I do likewise, then we might argue that it has two locations, but that isn't actually the case because neither of us owns the "true" co-ordinate system.


    Morbert wrote: »
    Yes they would. They would both also agree on what the train ruler says. Observer 2 would say the track ruler is correct. Observer 1 would say the train ruler is correct.

    The above is incorrect because you are conflating the two rulers. We will only consider the track ruler.

    Observer 1 passes the 0 mark on the ruler (The midpoint) at t' = 0 and meets the light at t2' = ɣt2(1 - v^2/c^2) (This was derived in post # 54).

    t2' = ɣt2(1 - v^2/c^2) = t2/ɣ = 5L/18cɣ

    In this time, the track has travelled a distance of

    5L/18cɣ * v = 5Lv/18cɣ = 5L/18ɣ(c/v) = 5L/18ɣ(4/5) = 4L/18ɣ

    But since the track is contracted, it will measure the larger distance of ɣ4L/18ɣ = 4L/18.

    This is in agreement with observer 2.

    A similar calculation can be performed to show that both observers will agree with what the train ruler says.
    I'm inclined to put more trust in your own mathematical ability - simply because I am familiar with my own :D but my initial impression, and this could quite easily be down to an error in my reasoning, is that saying that Observer 1 passes the 0, mark on the ruler at, t'=0 looks like a bit of a red herring - not in the sense that you are deliberately trying to mislead, but because when Observer 1 passes the 0 mark both the light and the track have already been travelling.

    In Observer 1's reference frame, with the rod following behind the light, at 4/5 of its speed, the light will only ever have moved ahead of the rod by 1/5 of the overall distance travelled by the light, thus it will only have illuminated a length of track measuring 1/5 of that distance, and hence that graduation on the track - by the time it reaches Observer 1.

    On the other hand Observer 2 will see a sphere of light centred on the rod, and so it will illuminate 5/9 of the distance by the time it reaches Oberver 1. Even allowing for contraction, it appears as though they will see different lengths of track illuminated.


    All that being said, with respect to the derivation in post #54, the conclusion appears to be assumed in saying that t' = ɣ(t - vx/c^2). The derivation of ɣ as per the video you posted is something which the author also challenges.
    Morbert wrote: »
    Your first birthday is a present event of a reference frame. You typing a response yesterday is a present event of a reference frame. You reading this is a present event of a reference frame. If you accept that all these events are real (not just you reading this), then there is no major dispute.

    In this reference frame none of those events are real any longer, but that would just be in this reference frame. My first birthday, with respect to this reference frame, is now an abstraction; but if that reference frame actually exists then it has it's own present i.e. if me as a one year old exists, the [he] is currently having [his] first birthday (according tho him). So if the entire universe is paused then the present is made up of all those present reference frames.

    What would be the case thought if one of the presents was chosen as the moment to pause the universe; where that present is "the past" of another reference frame?



    Oberver in motion
    This is related to the point above about the "true present"; it might appear to be going back over old ground, but, through my own fault, there was an inherent assumption which was never addressed; the assumption relates to the notion of "past" and "future" reference frames.

    Yhe point raised was:
    roosh wrote: »
    The crux of the issue, as far as I can see, isn't the relative motion of either Observer with respect to the earth, the sun, or our solar system; it is that Observer 1 is moving relative to Observer 2, as well as both rods, A and B, while Observer 2 is at rest relative to the rods.
    and the reply:
    Morbert wrote: »
    Then what is the absolute "present"? What must we be stationary with respect to in order to determine the true present?

    The notion of the "universal pause button" was raised after this, while allowing the assumption of "past" and "future" reference frames; "past" and "future" reference frames are however challenged by the notion that Observer 1 would conclude that it is he that is moving relative to the rods and the "beam" of light.

    To address the issue: "What must we be stationary with respect to in order to determine the true present?"

    Our ability to determine the true present has no bearing on its existence, but in the context of Observers 1 & 2, if Observer 1 correctly [in my opinion] concludes that it is he that is in motion, with repsect to the rods and Observer 1, then he would come to the same conclusion - that the lightning strikes occured at the same time - as Observer 2.

    Again, the issue of how Observer comes to the conclusion might need to be addressed, but you would imagine that if he arrives to the train station before his train departs and instead of boarding the train immediately he stands on the platfrom and watches the train start to pull out before boarding it, then he would conclude that it is, in fact, he that is in motion relative to the rods.

    Alternatively, if he were to wait with Observer 2 until the train was approaching and then walked a distance to get picked up by the train (using it's sophisiticated device for picking up passengers while in motion), which allowed him to reach the inertial velocity of 0.8c before reaching the rods, he would surely conclude that it was he that was in motion and not the passing countryside.


  • Advertisement
  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    But in the specific instance of determining whether both observers will read the same measurement on the track ruler what we are interested in is not how much the light has travelled with repsect to Observer 1, but rather how much the light has travelled with respect to the track, to see how much of the track has been illuminated by the light.

    And as I have shown, light and observer 1 will cross at the 4L/18 mark. Meaning observer 1 travelled 4L/18 with respect to the track, and light travelled L/2 - 4L/18 = 5L/18 with respect to the track. Light will be 1/5 ahead of the pole only according to the train ruler.
    with regard to the sphere(s), if it is the same sphere, with different centres, then it won't necessarily be a sphere - I picture it to be somewhat like how a wormhole is traditionally depicted.

    I have a football. It is effectively a sphere. In my frame of reference, the centre is "near". In your frame of reference, the centre is "far". Hence, it has two locations assigned to it. So long as there is one centre per reference frame, there is no issue.
    Also, to say that the computer (or the rod) has two locations is somewhat of a misnomer, I think, because it blurs the lines between what is meant by "location"; just because we are standing different distances from it, it doesn't mean it has two locations. If you superimpose a theoretical, mathematical co-ordinate system on reality, and I do likewise, then we might argue that it has two locations, but that isn't actually the case because neither of us owns the "true" co-ordinate system.

    Exactly. A co-ordinate system is just a set of labels we place on all events. If we talk about the light without respect to any co-ordinate systems, which is what physicists often do, then there is no issue. There is no intrinsic centre of the sphere.

    But interestingly enough, if we look at the light sphere in the context of space time, there is indeed a centre to the light "cone" that all observers will agree on. I.e. All observers will agree that lightning struck the pole.
    I'm inclined to put more trust in your own mathematical ability - simply because I am familiar with my own :D but my initial impression, and this could quite easily be down to an error in my reasoning, is that saying that Observer 1 passes the 0, mark on the ruler at, t'=0 looks like a bit of a red herring - not in the sense that you are deliberately trying to mislead, but because when Observer 1 passes the 0 mark both the light and the track have already been travelling.

    It isn't mathematical ability that is the issue. The issue is conceptually grasping what is happening. 5L/18cɣ is the time interval between the observer passing the 0 mark and the observer intercepting the light. Therefore the track, in that time, must have travelled from a state of the 0 mark being at observer 1, to a state of the mark 4L/18 being at observer 1. If you want, you can consider the entire travel time, and you will get the same answer since observer 1 starts before the 0 mark. But the calculation would be more convoluted.

    And remember, the (1/5)(ɣL/2) is what his own ruler will report. I.e. His ruler will tell him the light travelled ɣL/2, so the real location of the pole must be a distance ɣL/10 away from him, according to his own ruler. You keep telling me you want to discuss the track ruler, but you keep using the train ruler. The pole is stationary with respect to the track ruler.
    In Observer 1's reference frame, with the rod following behind the light, at 4/5 of its speed, the light will only ever have moved ahead of the rod by 1/5 of the overall distance travelled by the light, thus it will only have illuminated a length of track measuring 1/5 of that distance, and hence that graduation on the track - by the time it reaches Observer 1.

    Thus, 1/5 of "That distance" (ɣL/2 according to his own ruler, not according to the track ruler).
    On the other hand Observer 2 will see a sphere of light centred on the rod, and so it will illuminate 5/9 of the distance by the time it reaches Oberver 1. Even allowing for contraction, it appears as though they will see different lengths of track illuminated.

    Again, you are conflating two rulers. The section of the track that will be illuminated will be from the 4L/18 mark to the L/2 mark. Similarly, both observers will agree that the train ruler has been illuminated from the ɣL/2 mark to the 0 mark. It is very straightforward if you just take time to methodically work from the lorentz transformations.

    Observer 1 will say that, since the track is moving, and since different portions will be illuminated at different times, the overall reading cannot be trusted, meaning the image of the track's illuminated section, if we use correct markings, will actually be ɣL/2. Observer 2 will say it is the train's ruler that is moving and hence incorrect, and the track ruler is giving the correct reading.
    All that being said, with respect to the derivation in post #54, the conclusion appears to be assumed in saying that t' = ɣ(t - vx/c^2). The derivation of ɣ as per the video you posted is something which the author also challenges.

    It is not assumed. It follows from the Lorentz transformations.
    In this reference frame none of those events are real any longer, but that would just be in this reference frame. My first birthday, with respect to this reference frame, is now an abstraction; but if that reference frame actually exists then it has it's own present i.e. if me as a one year old exists, the [he] is currently having [his] first birthday (according tho him). So if the entire universe is paused then the present is made up of all those present reference frames.

    What would be the case thought if one of the presents was chosen as the moment to pause the universe; where that present is "the past" of another reference frame?

    Oberver in motion
    This is related to the point above about the "true present"; it might appear to be going back over old ground, but, through my own fault, there was an inherent assumption which was never addressed; the assumption relates to the notion of "past" and "future" reference frames.

    The notion of the "universal pause button" was raised after this, while allowing the assumption of "past" and "future" reference frames; "past" and "future" reference frames are however challenged by the notion that Observer 1 would conclude that it is he that is moving relative to the rods and the "beam" of light.

    To address the issue: "What must we be stationary with respect to in order to determine the true present?"

    Our ability to determine the true present has no bearing on its existence, but in the context of Observers 1 & 2, if Observer 1 correctly [in my opinion] concludes that it is he that is in motion, with repsect to the rods and Observer 1, then he would come to the same conclusion - that the lightning strikes occured at the same time - as Observer 2.

    Again, the issue of how Observer comes to the conclusion might need to be addressed, but you would imagine that if he arrives to the train station before his train departs and instead of boarding the train immediately he stands on the platfrom and watches the train start to pull out before boarding it, then he would conclude that it is, in fact, he that is in motion relative to the rods.

    Alternatively, if he were to wait with Observer 2 until the train was approaching and then walked a distance to get picked up by the train (using it's sophisiticated device for picking up passengers while in motion), which allowed him to reach the inertial velocity of 0.8c before reaching the rods, he would surely conclude that it was he that was in motion and not the passing countryside.

    Determining motion with respect to something else is easy, and there is no dispute over this. Both observers will agree that the rods are moving with respect to observer 1, and stationary with respect to observer 2. But the observers would not be able to determine whether the train is moving absolutely, or whether the earth is rotating, and hence moving the tracks, and the train is stationary. Motion with respect to something doesn't indicate which frame of reference is more correct. This can be seen with a slight modification of the thought experiment.

    Let's put the rods on both the train and the track. Call the new rods rod A' and rod B', and get rid of lightning. In observer 2's frame of reference, the passing of A and A' happens at the same time as the passing of B and B'. They are simultaneous. In observer 1's frame of reference, rods B and B' will pass before rods A and A'. Both observers are stationary with respect to one set of rods. Which represents the true present?


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    And as I have shown, light and observer 1 will cross at the 4L/18 mark. Meaning observer 1 travelled 4L/18 with respect to the track, and light travelled L/2 - 4L/18 = 5L/18 with respect to the track. Light will be 1/5 ahead of the pole only according to the train ruler.
    Apologies for the delay, I think I see where I was going wrong in conflating the two rulers. I've been trying to get a better visual understanding of it so have been trying to muck something [very crude] up in paint (using the graph paper). I haven't had a lot of time to do it, so haven't fully grasped it, but I can see where I've probably gone wrong.

    I'm still wondering if there would be a difference if the 0 marks of both rulers remained fixed to co-incide, but the location of the rods were moved, but I think my head would explode if I tried to understand the maths; but that is offset by understanding where I was potentially conflating the two rulers.

    Morbert wrote: »
    I have a football. It is effectively a sphere. In my frame of reference, the centre is "near". In your frame of reference, the centre is "far". Hence, it has two locations assigned to it. So long as there is one centre per reference frame, there is no issue.
    I think that is more an anomaly that arises by imposing two conceptual, mathematical co-ordinate systems on the same thing. We could alternatively draw a single grid refernce system in which both of us are assigned locations along with the ball.


    Morbert wrote: »
    Exactly. A co-ordinate system is just a set of labels we place on all events. If we talk about the light without respect to any co-ordinate systems, which is what physicists often do, then there is no issue. There is no intrinsic centre of the sphere.
    There isn't necessarily and intrinsic centre, in that there is no existential point that is "a centre", but if we apply a co-ordinate system to the sphere, then we can determine it's centre, which will remain the same as it expands.
    Morbert wrote: »
    But interestingly enough, if we look at the light sphere in the context of space time, there is indeed a centre to the light "cone" that all observers will agree on. I.e. All observers will agree that lightning struck the pole.
    but if the thought experiment were to happen in reality, would the light behave like a cone or a sphere?

    Morbert wrote: »
    It isn't mathematical ability that is the issue. The issue is conceptually grasping what is happening. 5L/18cɣ is the time interval between the observer passing the 0 mark and the observer intercepting the light. Therefore the track, in that time, must have travelled from a state of the 0 mark being at observer 1, to a state of the mark 4L/18 being at observer 1. If you want, you can consider the entire travel time, and you will get the same answer since observer 1 starts before the 0 mark. But the calculation would be more convoluted.

    And remember, the (1/5)(ɣL/2) is what his own ruler will report. I.e. His ruler will tell him the light travelled ɣL/2, so the real location of the pole must be a distance ɣL/10 away from him, according to his own ruler. You keep telling me you want to discuss the track ruler, but you keep using the train ruler. The pole is stationary with respect to the track ruler.



    Thus, 1/5 of "That distance" (ɣL/2 according to his own ruler, not according to the track ruler).



    Again, you are conflating two rulers. The section of the track that will be illuminated will be from the 4L/18 mark to the L/2 mark. Similarly, both observers will agree that the train ruler has been illuminated from the ɣL/2 mark to the 0 mark. It is very straightforward if you just take time to methodically work from the lorentz transformations.

    Observer 1 will say that, since the track is moving, and since different portions will be illuminated at different times, the overall reading cannot be trusted, meaning the image of the track's illuminated section, if we use correct markings, will actually be ɣL/2. Observer 2 will say it is the train's ruler that is moving and hence incorrect, and the track ruler is giving the correct reading.
    I can see how I was probably conflating the two rulers; I'm still trying to go through it on MS paint (with grid lines) to try and get a better visual understanding of it, but I accept that it is likely I was mistaken in that.

    Morbert wrote: »
    It is not assumed. It follows from the Lorentz transformations.
    I suppose we're coming at this from different angles; you have gone through the evidence for these things already, or at least explored it already; so from your persepective such things as Lorentz transformations are evidentially based postulates, while from my perspective, because I haven't gone through them yet, they appear as assumptions. I understand that they are evidentially based, and they will probably cease to appear as assumption once I have gone through the evidence, but that is what I meant when I said it appeared as though the conclusion was assumed.

    One issue however, is that the author of the website outlines an experiment which, if accurate, would challeng the interpretation of the null result of the MMX, as well as the derivation of ɣ as per the video you posted.

    Morbert wrote: »
    Determining motion with respect to something else is easy, and there is no dispute over this. Both observers will agree that the rods are moving with respect to observer 1, and stationary with respect to observer 2. But the observers would not be able to determine whether the train is moving absolutely, or whether the earth is rotating, and hence moving the tracks, and the train is stationary. Motion with respect to something doesn't indicate which frame of reference is more correct. This can be seen with a slight modification of the thought experiment.
    So would you say that when we travel on a train from Dublin to Cork, we can't know if it is the train that is moving or if it is the rotation of the earth that leads to us arriving in Cork?

    If we can determine that it is the train that is the train that is moving and not the earth rotating to cause the movement, then Oberver 1 would conclude that the light had to travel a shorter distance from B and a longer distance from A, and hence conclude that the lightning struck rods A & B at the same time.
    Morbert wrote: »
    Let's put the rods on both the train and the track. Call the new rods rod A' and rod B', and get rid of lightning. In observer 2's frame of reference, the passing of A and A' happens at the same time as the passing of B and B'. They are simultaneous. In observer 1's frame of reference, rods B and B' will pass before rods A and A'. Both observers are stationary with respect to one set of rods. Which represents the true present?
    This is probably just nit-picking, but won't observer 2 see A and A' pass before B and B'; because the length of the train will be contracted?

    This example helps to explain what I'm getting at a bit more clearly. If we hit the "universal pause button" at t=0, when both Observers are at the 0 marks of their respective track rulers, and both observers are inline.

    If we imagine that this scene is captured on google maps, and we can view it from whatever position we want; we can start in Observer 2's position and walk towards Observer 1; because both Observers occupy the same universe, their respective reference frames must be connected; there must, therefore, be an interface between the two reference frames. It doesn't necessarily have to be an actual interface, but there must be a discernable section of the universe where the length contraction from Observer 1's reference frame ceases to be contracted, and vice versa.

    So while Observer 1 may have a different perception at t=0, than Observer 2, and vice versa, the "true present" is made up of both reference frames and the interface between them.

    That interface may be an associated distortion in the spacetime continuum, but that distortion would form part of the "true present" also.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    In a discussion on another forum someone has said that "because of technical limits" length contraction hasn't been tested directly, but has been indirectly tested through positive time dilation experiments. Is that accurate?


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    Apologies for the delay, I think I see where I was going wrong in conflating the two rulers. I've been trying to get a better visual understanding of it so have been trying to muck something [very crude] up in paint (using the graph paper). I haven't had a lot of time to do it, so haven't fully grasped it, but I can see where I've probably gone wrong.

    I'm still wondering if there would be a difference if the 0 marks of both rulers remained fixed to co-incide, but the location of the rods were moved, but I think my head would explode if I tried to understand the maths; but that is offset by understanding where I was potentially conflating the two rulers.

    If the tracks and train rulers were fixed, they would be stationary with respect to one-another. So they would both report the same values regardless of how the rods moved. If they were stationary with respect to observer 1, they would report observer 1's frame of reference. Likewise for observer 2.
    I think that is more an anomaly that arises by imposing two conceptual, mathematical co-ordinate systems on the same thing. We could alternatively draw a single grid refernce system in which both of us are assigned locations along with the ball.

    We could. Then the sphere would have a centre assigned by this new, third grid reference system.
    There isn't necessarily and intrinsic centre, in that there is no existential point that is "a centre", but if we apply a co-ordinate system to the sphere, then we can determine it's centre, which will remain the same as it expands.

    We can assign it a centre, yes. But think of it this way. In one reference frame, the pole is stationary, and stays at the centre of the sphere. In another reference frame, the pole is moving, and hence does not stay at the centre of the sphere. Hence, the pole is at the centre in one case and not in the other.
    but if the thought experiment were to happen in reality, would the light behave like a cone or a sphere?

    I should be careful about definitions. The term "light cone" comes from typical spacetime diagrams.

    "In reality, there are three space dimensions, so the light would actually form an expanding or contracting sphere in 3D space rather than a circle in 2D, and the light cone would actually be a four-dimensional version of a cone whose cross-sections form 3D spheres (analogous to a normal three-dimensional cone whose cross-sections form 2D circles)"
    One issue however, is that the author of the website outlines an experiment which, if accurate, would challeng the interpretation of the null result of the MMX, as well as the derivation of ɣ as per the video you posted.

    I spent a good while trawling through the site to try and find a reference for the experiment but could not find any. Do you know which experiment he is talking about?
    So would you say that when we travel on a train from Dublin to Cork, we can't know if it is the train that is moving or if it is the rotation of the earth that leads to us arriving in Cork?

    Or if it the orbit of the earth around the sun, or the galaxy, or the movement of the galactic super cluster, or the movement of the entire universe itself.
    If we can determine that it is the train that is the train that is moving and not the earth rotating to cause the movement, then Oberver 1 would conclude that the light had to travel a shorter distance from B and a longer distance from A, and hence conclude that the lightning struck rods A & B at the same time.

    Effectively yes. We would be able to define a single "Proper" reference frame.
    This is probably just nit-picking, but won't observer 2 see A and A' pass before B and B'; because the length of the train will be contracted?

    I should probably clarify. I am assuming the train, according to observer 1, is of length ɣL, and he is sitting in the middle. This would make the train a length L in observer 2's frame of reference, so when observer 1 and observer 2 are co-incident, the poles will all be simultaneously lined up according to observer 2 (but not observer 1).
    This example helps to explain what I'm getting at a bit more clearly. If we hit the "universal pause button" at t=0, when both Observers are at the 0 marks of their respective track rulers, and both observers are inline.

    If we imagine that this scene is captured on google maps, and we can view it from whatever position we want; we can start in Observer 2's position and walk towards Observer 1; because both Observers occupy the same universe, their respective reference frames must be connected; there must, therefore, be an interface between the two reference frames. It doesn't necessarily have to be an actual interface, but there must be a discernable section of the universe where the length contraction from Observer 1's reference frame ceases to be contracted, and vice versa.

    So while Observer 1 may have a different perception at t=0, than Observer 2, and vice versa, the "true present" is made up of both reference frames and the interface between them.

    That interface may be an associated distortion in the spacetime continuum, but that distortion would form part of the "true present" also.

    You can think of the interface as an infinite set of reference frames. If I want to move from my reference frame to yours, then I must slow down (or speed up) so that you and I are stationary. I must therefore pass through an infinite number of velocity values, and hence reference frames, as I adjust my speed to match yours.

    But the thing is I can't determine if it is I that changed my velocity to match yours, or if you changed your velocity to match mine, because the effect would be identical in both cases. So there is a consistent set of properties that are "covariant" or "the same" for all reference frames. It is these properties that physicists consider to be the underlying structure of the universe. This principle of general covariance is an interesting one.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_covariance

    "The essential idea is that coordinates do not exist a priori in nature, but are only artifices used in describing nature, and hence should play no role in the formulation of fundamental physical laws."


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    In a discussion on another forum someone has said that "because of technical limits" length contraction hasn't been tested directly, but has been indirectly tested through positive time dilation experiments. Is that accurate?

    I have been following the discussion on the other forum and am debating whether or not to chime in there. I will get back to this tomorrow.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    If the tracks and train rulers were fixed, they would be stationary with respect to one-another. So they would both report the same values regardless of how the rods moved. If they were stationary with respect to observer 1, they would report observer 1's frame of reference. Likewise for observer 2.
    of course my apologies, I was just trying to figure out if Observer 1 & Observer 2 would always meet at a point where both of them are always mid-way between the two rods. I was wondering if the overall length of track was contracted equally from both ends, that if the rods were moved, then the mid-points might not necessarily line up.

    Morbert wrote: »
    We could. Then the sphere would have a centre assigned by this new, third grid reference system.
    but couldn't we also extend the grid system from the sphere such that it covered both observers and resulted in just one grid reference system?

    Morbert wrote: »
    We can assign it a centre, yes. But think of it this way. In one reference frame, the pole is stationary, and stays at the centre of the sphere. In another reference frame, the pole is moving, and hence does not stay at the centre of the sphere. Hence, the pole is at the centre in one case and not in the other.
    I know, but what I am saying is that that is just a consequence of applying two imaginary reference systems to the same thing, where one reference system would do.

    Morbert wrote: »
    I should be careful about definitions. The term "light cone" comes from typical spacetime diagrams.

    "In reality, there are three space dimensions, so the light would actually form an expanding or contracting sphere in 3D space rather than a circle in 2D, and the light cone would actually be a four-dimensional version of a cone whose cross-sections form 3D spheres (analogous to a normal three-dimensional cone whose cross-sections form 2D circles)"
    I'm familiar with the light-cone diagrams alright, but that brings us back to our issue of the two-centres.

    Morbert wrote: »
    I spent a good while trawling through the site to try and find a reference for the experiment but could not find any. Do you know which experiment he is talking about?
    Here is a brief outline of the experiment, which is continued in more detail on the section of the site linked below.
    When however performing a real experiment with a laser, this so-called triviality of Figure 1 within the mind of the human observer, definitely shows that such theoretical model in that mind of the observer is not conform with the reality outside the observer's mind. When thus using a laser with a very small beam divergence it is possible to generate with such a specific laser a very fine laser beam and thus also a small laser dot (e.g. 3 mm in diameter or less) at a wall at a distance of e.g. 10 m. When then capturing in regular time intervals with a PC controlled digital camera during a time period of 24 hours the laser dot position (on a fixed measuring grid having grid lines with an interdistance of 1 mm) and rendering those images into a movie, the result is shown in Figure 2.

    This striking experimental observation of a changing laser dot position (which was considered to be a fixed position according to classical theory in optics and physics) on the measuring grid being linked to the 24 hour during rotation of our planet of course has very important consequences with respect to the actual existing paradims regarding light phenomena. It should be remarked that the experimental observation shown in Figure 2 was observed in multiple separate experiments during 24 hour cycles and thus was proven to be reproducible.
    Experimental section

    I can email him and ask him if he has a more detailed procedure - I presume the details of an experiment would usually be more formal. He is quite open to email, so if you wanted to ask him the specifics I'm sure he would be delighted to oblige - you would probably know the right questions to ask.

    Morbert wrote: »
    Or if it the orbit of the earth around the sun, or the galaxy, or the movement of the galactic super cluster, or the movement of the entire universe itself.
    Just to be clear, if you and I get the train from Dublin to Cork tomorrow morning, we can't know if it is the train that is moving, or the rotation of the earth that is causing cork to move towards us; do you genuinely believe that to be the case? What about the engines in a train and the work that has gone into designing vehicles that can move? Isn't there something to do with the energy gone into powering a train that means it has to go somewhere which wouldn't be accounted for by simple carbon emissions?

    What if we change the "dilemma" somewhat, and install a superhero instead of an observer on a train; a superhero who can travel up to, but not including the speed of light. The superhero would know that it is they that is moving, and not the rotation of the earth that is causing them to move, because they have to move their limbs.

    Morbert wrote: »
    Effectively yes. We would be able to define a single "Proper" reference frame.
    I'm sure it shouldn't be too difficult to show that it is the engine of the train which is causing the train to move and not the rotation of the earth causing the track beneath to go past. Otherwise all the science behind lokomotive transport could be discarded, no?


    Morbert wrote: »
    I should probably clarify. I am assuming the train, according to observer 1, is of length ɣL, and he is sitting in the middle. This would make the train a length L in observer 2's frame of reference, so when observer 1 and observer 2 are co-incident, the poles will all be simultaneously lined up according to observer 2 (but not observer 1).
    my apologies, I was assuming that the train was length L.


    Morbert wrote: »
    You can think of the interface as an infinite set of reference frames. If I want to move from my reference frame to yours, then I must slow down (or speed up) so that you and I are stationary. I must therefore pass through an infinite number of velocity values, and hence reference frames, as I adjust my speed to match yours.

    But the thing is I can't determine if it is I that changed my velocity to match yours, or if you changed your velocity to match mine, because the effect would be identical in both cases. So there is a consistent set of properties that are "covariant" or "the same" for all reference frames. It is these properties that physicists consider to be the underlying structure of the universe. This principle of general covariance is an interesting one.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_covariance

    "The essential idea is that coordinates do not exist a priori in nature, but are only artifices used in describing nature, and hence should play no role in the formulation of fundamental physical laws."
    The true present would then be represented by the infinite number of reference frames, at say, t=0.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    I have been following the discussion on the other forum and am debating whether or not to chime in there. I will get back to this tomorrow.

    I would be greatly interested in your contribution, not least because you have helped me to a greater understanding of Special Relativty here.


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    but couldn't we also extend the grid system from the sphere such that it covered both observers and resulted in just one grid reference system?

    What what is stationary and what is moving? Do we set up a grid system where the rod is stationary, or a grid system where the rod is moving? This will define whether or not the rod stays at the centre of the sphere of light.
    I know, but what I am saying is that that is just a consequence of applying two imaginary reference systems to the same thing, where one reference system would do.

    But which one imaginary reference system do you assume?
    Here is a brief outline of the experiment, which is continued in more detail on the section of the site linked below.

    Experimental section

    I can email him and ask him if he has a more detailed procedure - I presume the details of an experiment would usually be more formal. He is quite open to email, so if you wanted to ask him the specifics I'm sure he would be delighted to oblige - you would probably know the right questions to ask.

    What I meant was I could not find the article for the experiment. The details he gives are nowhere near comprehensive enough for me to review the experiment. Not making references available is a big no no in science.

    Put it in perspective. The neutrino experiment is gathering huge attention from the scientific community. Scientists rushed to get their name on the famous article. The level of detail in the article is of a scientific standard.

    http://arxiv.org/pdf/1109.4897v1

    The author of the website is presenting an equally astounding violation of relativity. But he presents no article. Does this mean he did the experiment himself? If he presented the detail needed to repeat the experiment, then scientists would presumably rush to repeat it.
    Just to be clear, if you and I get the train from Dublin to Cork tomorrow morning, we can't know if it is the train that is moving, or the rotation of the earth that is causing cork to move towards us; do you genuinely believe that to be the case? What about the engines in a train and the work that has gone into designing vehicles that can move? Isn't there something to do with the energy gone into powering a train that means it has to go somewhere which wouldn't be accounted for by simple carbon emissions?

    We know the rotation of the earth, with respect to the solar system, is in an easterly direction. But with respect to the galactic super cluster, our solar system, and hence earth, could be rotating in such away that travelling from north to south means you are stationary with respect to the galactic cluster.

    The moral of the story is any time we are talking about motion, we are always talking about it with respect to something else.

    As for the energy powering the train, it would still be expended, just as you must expend energy to balance yourself on a rotating log.
    What if we change the "dilemma" somewhat, and install a superhero instead of an observer on a train; a superhero who can travel up to, but not including the speed of light. The superhero would know that it is they that is moving, and not the rotation of the earth that is causing them to move, because they have to move their limbs.

    We can even assume he can travel the speed of light if we like. Let's say he leaves the earth and travels across the universe at some arbitrary speed. How would he know if it is he that accelerated, and travelled through the universe, or if he is stationary and the universe accelerated in the opposite direction, and is travelling past him? Relativity says he would have no way of knowing, as the laws of physics are the same in all reference frames.
    I'm sure it shouldn't be too difficult to show that it is the engine of the train which is causing the train to move and not the rotation of the earth causing the track beneath to go past. Otherwise all the science behind lokomotive transport could be discarded, no?

    Why? Locomotive transport is perfectly legitimate when we are talking about motion with respect to the surface of the earth.
    The true present would then be represented by the infinite number of reference frames, at say, t=0.

    Let my try and illustrate my point. Let's push the pause button at some t=0, according to two reference frames. I.e. Let's look at two reference frames that agree when the pushing of the button occurs. Below is an illustration of the first frame.

    evcjnq.png

    The black line is the present. Dots on the black lines are events that occured during the present. (Let's say the event in the centre is the "pushing the pause button event".) Dots above and below it are future and past events, and are therefore not real according to you.

    But now let's look at it from the perspective of both reference frame.

    8vozet.png

    The blue line is the present from the perspective of the 2nd reference frame. Notice that all the blue dots are now real, and the back dots (bar one, the pushing of the pause button) are in the future or past, and are hence imaginary. So we have two reference frames that agree with when the pause button was pressed, but have different "presents". My question to you is, when we push the button, which events are real? All of them? None?


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    What what is stationary and what is moving? Do we set up a grid system where the rod is stationary, or a grid system where the rod is moving? This will define whether or not the rod stays at the centre of the sphere of light.
    I would say a grid system where the rod is stationary, becuase I would question the assumption of the sphere with two different centres.

    Morbert wrote: »
    But which one imaginary reference system do you assume?
    that would be a matter of choice.

    Morbert wrote: »
    What I meant was I could not find the article for the experiment. The details he gives are nowhere near comprehensive enough for me to review the experiment. Not making references available is a big no no in science.

    Put it in perspective. The neutrino experiment is gathering huge attention from the scientific community. Scientists rushed to get their name on the famous article. The level of detail in the article is of a scientific standard.

    http://arxiv.org/pdf/1109.4897v1

    The author of the website is presenting an equally astounding violation of relativity. But he presents no article. Does this mean he did the experiment himself? If he presented the detail needed to repeat the experiment, then scientists would presumably rush to repeat it.
    I think the comparison with the OPERA experiment is a little off; I'm sure when it comes to independent researchers (assuming this guy is legit) then I can imagine trying to get someone to read past the extract, of a paper which challenges the well established MMX & SR, without letters such as OPERA or CERN attached, would be quite difficult. Through no major fault of anyone's - afterall, if every crackpot theory were to be peer reviewed that would lead to a lot of wasted time; but I'm sure you can appreciate that that might lead to some genuine research slipping through the net.

    I've emailed him again to see how he submitted it for peer review, and see if he has a more comprehensive outline of the experiment.

    Morbert wrote: »
    We know the rotation of the earth, with respect to the solar system, is in an easterly direction. But with respect to the galactic super cluster, our solar system, and hence earth, could be rotating in such away that travelling from north to south means you are stationary with respect to the galactic cluster.

    The moral of the story is any time we are talking about motion, we are always talking about it with respect to something else.
    I understand that, but it is the below which i think is the case.
    Morbert wrote: »
    Why? Locomotive transport is perfectly legitimate when we are talking about motion with respect to the surface of the earth.
    with respect to the train, we are talking about locomotion with respect to the surface of the earth, though.
    Morbert wrote: »
    As for the energy powering the train, it would still be expended, just as you must expend energy to balance yourself on a rotating log.
    but if it was the train that was in motion and the brakes were applied, wouldn't the direction of momentum be different than if it was the earth that was causing the movement?

    If Observer 1 applied the breaks, wouldn't the direction of momentum let him know if it was the train that was moving, or the ground beneath him. I'm thinking along the lines of the difference between running on a treadmill and running on the road; if you stop suddenly on a threadmill you will be thrown backwards, but if you stop suddenly on the road your momentum would take you forward.

    Morbert wrote: »
    We can even assume he can travel the speed of light if we like. Let's say he leaves the earth and travels across the universe at some arbitrary speed. How would he know if it is he that accelerated, and travelled through the universe, or if he is stationary and the universe accelerated in the opposite direction, and is travelling past him? Relativity says he would have no way of knowing, as the laws of physics are the same in all reference frames.
    but if we take it back to the surface of the earth, he would know from the fact that he was moving his limbs that it was he that was moving, wouldn't he?

    Morbert wrote: »
    Let my try and illustrate my point. Let's push the pause button at some t=0, according to two reference frames. I.e. Let's look at two reference frames that agree when the pushing of the button occurs. Below is an illustration of the first frame.

    evcjnq.png

    The black line is the present. Dots on the black lines are events that occured during the present. (Let's say the event in the centre is the "pushing the pause button event".) Dots above and below it are future and past events, and are therefore not real according to you.

    But now let's look at it from the perspective of both reference frame.

    8vozet.png

    The blue line is the present from the perspective of the 2nd reference frame. Notice that all the blue dots are now real, and the back dots (bar one, the pushing of the pause button) are in the future or past, and are hence imaginary. So we have two reference frames that agree with when the pause button was pressed, but have different "presents". My question to you is, when we push the button, which events are real? All of them? None?

    Are those "timelines" an accurate representation of the possibilities, according to relativity? Does relativity provide for the possibility that the events in the present of one reference frame can be divided among the past and future of another?


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Here is what he had to say about the experiment
    I have all the information and all the data at home since I did the elaborated laser experiment myself. I bought the hightech laser with a very small divergence in the USA and mounted it on a stable tripod. I directed the fine beam towards a fixed measuring grid (that I produced myself) and placed it in a fixed wall position at a distance of about 10 m. I also mounted a sophisticated digital camera on another tripod. I bought a USB based electronics printed circuit board that allows to be controlled by PC software and which has a switch output function. I had thus a special software being developed of which the interface is shown in Figure 16 at the website. I also bought and modified myself a special electronically operated shutter interface which was connected between the USB based interface circuit board and the digital camera. That set-up thus allowed a PC controlled automatic photographing at regular time intervals of the laser dot at the measuring grid (of which the gridlines are at a distance of 1 mm between one another) during a 24 hours test. I then mounted the still photographs into a movie of which you can see the result at the website in Figure 2. You then can see the displacement of the laser dot during 24 hours but of course at a faster pace as a result of the time intervals between each photograph and the movie effect. Some still photographs are shown in Figure 8 proving the reproduciblity. I did numerous tests, each of 24 hours and they all showed the same result. Moreover, the very first images that I used in my patent text are based on a much simpler laser and laser "spot" but even that simple laser spot showed completely the same effect ! So there is no question regarding reproducibility.
    I can of course give also the details of the laser, digital photo apparatus, USB board, software program, shutter device, procedure
    I have written multiple publications in my research carreer on other topics
    ...
    I am using the information from within the former publication trials and the website. I will then try to present the information as Part I, Part II and Part III. I am in the middle of Part I


  • Advertisement
  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Here is the "Experimental" section of the website as well, where there is more info.


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    I would say a grid system where the rod is stationary, becuase I would question the assumption of the sphere with two different centres.

    But the "two different centres" are just the "grid with stationary rod" centre and the "grid with moving rod" centre. Again, this is no different to a ball having a "near" and a "far" centre. It's all just perspective.
    I think the comparison with the OPERA experiment is a little off; I'm sure when it comes to independent researchers (assuming this guy is legit) then I can imagine trying to get someone to read past the extract, of a paper which challenges the well established MMX & SR, without letters such as OPERA or CERN attached, would be quite difficult. Through no major fault of anyone's - afterall, if every crackpot theory were to be peer reviewed that would lead to a lot of wasted time; but I'm sure you can appreciate that that might lead to some genuine research slipping through the net.

    I've emailed him again to see how he submitted it for peer review, and see if he has a more comprehensive outline of the experiment.

    This might be true, but scientists have been testing relativity for a century, with plenty of modern experiments that contradict the author's results.

    http://johanw.home.xs4all.nl/PhysFAQ/Relativity/SR/experiments.html

    Here are specific references to Laser experiments.

    http://johanw.home.xs4all.nl/PhysFAQ/Relativity/SR/experiments.html#modern-laser

    Scientists have been very thorough with lasers and have not demonstrated any anisotropy in the speed of light.
    with respect to the train, we are talking about locomotion with respect to the surface of the earth, though.

    It is with respect to the surface of the earth, not with respect to the train. Locomotion, with respect to the train, is non-existant. I.e. The train is always stationary with respect to the train. Engineers instead devised means of motion with respect to the surface of the earth.
    but if it was the train that was in motion and the brakes were applied, wouldn't the direction of momentum be different than if it was the earth that was causing the movement?

    No.
    If Observer 1 applied the breaks, wouldn't the direction of momentum let him know if it was the train that was moving, or the ground beneath him. I'm thinking along the lines of the difference between running on a treadmill and running on the road; if you stop suddenly on a threadmill you will be thrown backwards, but if you stop suddenly on the road your momentum would take you forward.

    If he applied the brakes, the ground would stop moving beneath him. He would interpret this as the ground slowing down.
    but if we take it back to the surface of the earth, he would know from the fact that he was moving his limbs that it was he that was moving, wouldn't he?

    He would need to move his limbs to stay stationary just as you need to move your limbs to stay stationary on a spinning log.
    Are those "timelines" an accurate representation of the possibilities, according to relativity? Does relativity provide for the possibility that the events in the present of one reference frame can be divided among the past and future of another?

    Yes. It is precisely the type of transformation relevant to special relativity. Here is the somewhat cluttered picture from youtube illustrating the lorentz transformation of space and time.

    Animated_Lorentz_Transformation_frame_0031.gif

    Or another that makes it more obvious

    minkowski.gif

    The x-axis is an instant in time according to one frame of reference. The x'-axis is an instant according to another. Notice they are not parallel, so the present in one frame of reference is smeared over the past, present and future of another.

    Take our train example. If we hit the pause button at t = 0, both bolts strike in the present, according to observer 2, but one is in the past and the other is in the future according to observer 1.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    But the "two different centres" are just the "grid with stationary rod" centre and the "grid with moving rod" centre. Again, this is no different to a ball having a "near" and a "far" centre. It's all just perspective.
    I don't think it's quite as simplistic as that though is it? It would be more like "grid with centre of sphere located above rod" and "grid with moving rod with centre not above rod"; in terms of a ball, it would be similar to the ball being beside a post in one grid and not beside the post in another.

    Morbert wrote: »
    This might be true, but scientists have been testing relativity for a century, with plenty of modern experiments that contradict the author's results.

    http://johanw.home.xs4all.nl/PhysFAQ/Relativity/SR/experiments.html

    Here are specific references to Laser experiments.

    http://johanw.home.xs4all.nl/PhysFAQ/Relativity/SR/experiments.html#modern-laser

    Scientists have been very thorough with lasers and have not demonstrated any anisotropy in the speed of light.
    I don't think the author's experiment demonstrates any anisotropy in the speed of light either

    Morbert wrote: »
    It is with respect to the surface of the earth, not with respect to the train. Locomotion, with respect to the train, is non-existant. I.e. The train is always stationary with respect to the train. Engineers instead devised means of motion with respect to the surface of the earth.
    that is what we are talking about though, isn't it? the locomotion of the train with respect to the surface of the earth?
    Morbert wrote: »
    No.

    If he applied the brakes, the ground would stop moving beneath him. He would interpret this as the ground slowing down.
    But if you or I are travelling in a train and it slams on the brakes, we will be jolted forward initially - Is that something to do with us inhereting the momentum of the train?; if it were the earth that were moving the same effect wouldn't be felt, would it?
    Morbert wrote: »
    He would need to move his limbs to stay stationary just as you need to move your limbs to stay stationary on a spinning log.
    similarly though, if he were to stop suddenly wouldn't there be a discernable difference, which would help him to conclude that the log was spinning as well.

    Morbert wrote: »
    Yes. It is precisely the type of transformation relevant to special relativity. Here is the somewhat cluttered picture from youtube illustrating the lorentz transformation of space and time.

    Animated_Lorentz_Transformation_frame_0031.gif

    Or another that makes it more obvious

    minkowski.gif

    The x-axis is an instant in time according to one frame of reference. The x'-axis is an instant according to another. Notice they are not parallel, so the present in one frame of reference is smeared over the past, present and future of another.

    Take our train example. If we hit the pause button at t = 0, both bolts strike in the present, according to observer 2, but one is in the past and the other is in the future according to observer 1.

    OK, I was getting a bit confused, I was thinking the blue dots (as per your initial diagram) corresponded to the black dots i.e. the blue dot "events" were the same as the black dot "events"; because that would have meant that events which were in the past of one reference frame were also in its present, while other events which were in its future were also in its present.

    The "timelines", that are drawn there, only represent two reference frams of the infinite number of reference frames; the true present wouldn't consist solely of just those two reference frames, it would include all reference frames - how would that be graphed?

    Using just the two reference frames above, the true present would consist of both lines. Sticking with the train example: at t=0 the lightning strikes would be in the present of Observer 2's reference frame and so those events would be real in Observer 2's reference frame; while the strike at B would have occurred already in Observer 1's referene frame so the lightning striking B is no longer a real event - in Observer 1's reference frame - it is in the memory of Observer 1.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    This might be true, but scientists have been testing relativity for a century, with plenty of modern experiments that contradict the author's results.

    http://johanw.home.xs4all.nl/PhysFAQ/Relativity/SR/experiments.html

    Here are specific references to Laser experiments.

    http://johanw.home.xs4all.nl/PhysFAQ/Relativity/SR/experiments.html#modern-laser

    Scientists have been very thorough with lasers and have not demonstrated any anisotropy in the speed of light.


    Just a further point on that: I'm not sure where Karl Popper's philosophy, with regard to falsification, ranks among the scientific community, but if applied in this instance then the author's observation would be sufficient, if not to falsify the theory, then to at least challenge it.

    Is there a possible explanation for the alleged phenomenon, as outlined by the author?


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    I don't think it's quite as simplistic as that though is it? It would be more like "grid with centre of sphere located above rod" and "grid with moving rod with centre not above rod"; in terms of a ball, it would be similar to the ball being beside a post in one grid and not beside the post in another.

    Which side of the post? It could be in front of the post with one grid, and behind the post in another. I do understand the counter-intuitive nature of this, and it is an effect that does not happen under Galilean transformations. But is happens because the speed of light is the same for all observers. Either you have the pole remain at the centre of the sphere in all reference frames, or you have a constant speed of light in all reference frames. Plus, as mentioned before, the lightning strike on the pole is at the centre of the hypersphere for all observers. I am surprised you have an issue with this, as you have agreed that co-ordinate systems are artifices.
    I don't think the author's experiment demonstrates any anisotropy in the speed of light either

    The dot shifts from centre. This means it is inheriting more speed. If you are swimming across a river at speed v, and a current picks up, then you will inherit the speed of the current, making your total speed greater than v.
    that is what we are talking about though, isn't it? the locomotion of the train with respect to the surface of the earth?

    Yes. And relativity is consistent with locomotion technology.
    But if you or I are travelling in a train and it slams on the brakes, we will be jolted forward initially - Is that something to do with us inhereting the momentum of the train?; if it were the earth that were moving the same effect wouldn't be felt, would it?

    similarly though, if he were to stop suddenly wouldn't there be a discernable difference, which would help him to conclude that the log was spinning as well.

    This is true. But, due to the principle of equivalence, we cannot say we are the ones who have slowed down. In relativity, gravity is merely an expression of the geometry of spacetime. In our reference frame, when the break is applied, the geometry of spacetime slows the earth, and is also the reason we experience a gravitational force towards the front of the train.
    OK, I was getting a bit confused, I was thinking the blue dots (as per your initial diagram) corresponded to the black dots i.e. the blue dot "events" were the same as the black dot "events"; because that would have meant that events which were in the past of one reference frame were also in its present, while other events which were in its future were also in its present.

    The "timelines", that are drawn there, only represent two reference frams of the infinite number of reference frames; the true present wouldn't consist solely of just those two reference frames, it would include all reference frames - how would that be graphed?

    When we consider all reference frames, we get the causal structure of the universe. The proper physics in other words. It looks like this.

    2zok9s1.png

    The black dots are all random events. The black dot in the centre of the lines is the event "pushing the pause button". Any events that lie in the top white section are events in the future of the button push. If "pushing the pause button" were a normal, physical event, the future events would be all events that the "pushing" could influence. Similarly, if a dog barks and causes you to wake up, then the event "waking up" is in the future of "dog barks". Though since we are engaging in a thought experiment, and the pause button is instantaneously in effect, we simply say:

    "The set of all events in the 'future' section are events that are in the future of the button push according to all frames of reference."

    You would presumably therefore say they are not real. So far no issue. A similar thing could be said for the past section. These are all events that could have influenced the pushing of the pause button, such as the muscle movement of the finger, or the construction of the button itself. These causal events are in the past of the button push according to all reference frames, and hence not real any more.

    But the next section is where your idea breaks down. The remaining sections are all events in the present of the button push. I.e. For all these events, there exists a frame of reference where the pushing of the pause button and the events happen simultaneously (i.e. In the present). So my typing this is "in the present", and you reading this is also "in the present".

    There are two ways of interpreting these facts. The first, traditional approach is to insist that space time is necessarily four dimensional. Three space dimensions and one time dimension as described by relativity. The second approach, as discussed by Julian Barbour, is to consider all configurations of space, and to derive "change" and hence "time" as generated by special operators.

    But either way, the newtonian, galielean notion of a "present" consisting of a single, classical 3 dimensional snapshot is no longer consistent. We can define a causal structure that exists at every event, but we cannot weave events into a single snapshot of the present.
    Using just the two reference frames above, the true present would consist of both lines. Sticking with the train example: at t=0 the lightning strikes would be in the present of Observer 2's reference frame and so those events would be real in Observer 2's reference frame; while the strike at B would have occurred already in Observer 1's referene frame so the lightning striking B is no longer a real event - in Observer 1's reference frame - it is in the memory of Observer 1.

    But how can an event be both real and not real? Remember that reference frames are just co-ordinate systems. They cannot define what is real and what is not real.
    Just a further point on that: I'm not sure where Karl Popper's philosophy, with regard to falsification, ranks among the scientific community, but if applied in this instance then the author's observation would be sufficient, if not to falsify the theory, then to at least challenge it.

    Is there a possible explanation for the alleged phenomenon, as outlined by the author?

    If the experiment is confirmed it would definitely falsify relativity.

    P.S. I forgot to answer your question about length contraction. We have witnessed the length contraction of electromagnetic fields. The electric field along the velocity of motion, making it stronger at right angles to the charge. But we have not been able to measure length contraction of, say, a train or a ruler due to the huge velocities we would need to obtain.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Morbert wrote: »
    Which side of the post? It could be in front of the post with one grid, and behind the post in another. I do understand the counter-intuitive nature of this, and it is an effect that does not happen under Galilean transformations. But is happens because the speed of light is the same for all observers. Either you have the pole remain at the centre of the sphere in all reference frames, or you have a constant speed of light in all reference frames. Plus, as mentioned before, the lightning strike on the pole is at the centre of the hypersphere for all observers. I am surprised you have an issue with this, as you have agreed that co-ordinate systems are artifices.

    The issue I have, i suppose, is with stepping out of the mathematical hypershpere and into "real space", and vice versa; because it's not quite as simple as the ball being in front of one post and behind another, it is a case of remaining beside the post in one reference frame, while the post is moving away from it in another, where both balls and posts are the same.

    It also seems as though the problem of the constancy of the speed of light would be addressed if the observer on the train were to conclude that it is the train that is moving relative to the surface of the earth, and not the earth that was moving.

    Morbert wrote: »
    The dot shifts from centre. This means it is inheriting more speed. If you are swimming across a river at speed v, and a current picks up, then you will inherit the speed of the current, making your total speed greater than v.
    The analogy doesn't accurately represet the [alleged] observed phenomenon; because the dot doesn't shift from centre in the direction of motion, but in the opposite direction; so it doesn't actually inheret speed.

    It would actually have to inheret speed to hit the centre, because the location of the sensor - in "real space" - would have changed from when the the pulse was sent, with the orbit of the earth in "real space", or reality.

    It is more like "space invaders" where both the ship and the "alien" are moving in the same direction, say to the right of the screen; if the ship fires a shot when it is located directly at the centre point of the alien, then it won't hit the alien in the centre point, but in a point to the left of the aliens centre, becuase the alien will have moved by the time the pulse reaches it.

    Morbert wrote: »
    Yes. And relativity is consistent with locomotion technology.
    I don't doubt that the two can be reconciled, because the nuance of relativity is such that it allows for the "re-graphing" of all observed phenomena from an infinite number of reference frames; to the extent that, as far as I can see, the geocentric worldview cannot necessarily be determined to be incorrect - and isn't necessarily incorrect.

    It also appears to rely on an apparently ridiculous assumption; namely, that for the relevant observer, the rotation of the earth just happens to increase, such that the relative change in distance is exactly the same as they would expect were it the train that were moving relative to the surface of the earth, at the given velocity; not only that, but the rotation of the earth just happens to increase at the exact moment that the accelerator is pressed; not only that, but the rotation of the earth also slows down at exactly the same rate as they would expect the train to, when the brakes are applied; again, all this occuring to co-incide with the exact time they apply the brake.

    The consequence of that reasoning is that the engine of a train doesn't actually propel a train forward.

    Morbert wrote: »
    This is true. But, due to the principle of equivalence, we cannot say we are the ones who have slowed down. In relativity, gravity is merely an expression of the geometry of spacetime. In our reference frame, when the break is applied, the geometry of spacetime slows the earth, and is also the reason we experience a gravitational force towards the front of the train.
    does the application of the brake cause the geometry of spacetime to slow the earth?

    also, are there not effects directly (or even indirectly) related to the speed of the earths rotation that could be tested to see if the rotation of the earth has actually changed?

    Morbert wrote: »
    When we consider all reference frames, we get the causal structure of the universe. The proper physics in other words. It looks like this.



    The black dots are all random events. The black dot in the centre of the lines is the event "pushing the pause button". Any events that lie in the top white section are events in the future of the button push. If "pushing the pause button" were a normal, physical event, the future events would be all events that the "pushing" could influence. Similarly, if a dog barks and causes you to wake up, then the event "waking up" is in the future of "dog barks". Though since we are engaging in a thought experiment, and the pause button is instantaneously in effect, we simply say:

    "The set of all events in the 'future' section are events that are in the future of the button push according to all frames of reference."

    You would presumably therefore say they are not real. So far no issue. A similar thing could be said for the past section. These are all events that could have influenced the pushing of the pause button, such as the muscle movement of the finger, or the construction of the button itself. These causal events are in the past of the button push according to all reference frames, and hence not real any more.

    But the next section is where your idea breaks down. The remaining sections are all events in the present of the button push. I.e. For all these events, there exists a frame of reference where the pushing of the pause button and the events happen simultaneously (i.e. In the present). So my typing this is "in the present", and you reading this is also "in the present".

    There are two ways of interpreting these facts. The first, traditional approach is to insist that space time is necessarily four dimensional. Three space dimensions and one time dimension as described by relativity. The second approach, as discussed by Julian Barbour, is to consider all configurations of space, and to derive "change" and hence "time" as generated by special operators.

    But either way, the newtonian, galielean notion of a "present" consisting of a single, classical 3 dimensional snapshot is no longer consistent. We can define a causal structure that exists at every event, but we cannot weave events into a single snapshot of the present.
    Not necessarily. If you are typing at t=0 (the pushing the pause button) then I amn't reading it, I am doing something else.


    Morbert wrote: »
    But how can an event be both real and not real? Remember that reference frames are just co-ordinate systems. They cannot define what is real and what is not real.
    again, it's not that the event is real or isn't, it might be clearer to simply state that it isn't in that reference frame; it may be similar to the manner in which a sphere of light can remain centred over a moving rod and remain stationary elsewhere, simultaneously.

    Morbert wrote: »
    If the experiment is confirmed it would definitely falsify relativity.
    according to Popper, that might well be the reason to carry it out.
    Morbert wrote: »
    P.S. I forgot to answer your question about length contraction. We have witnessed the length contraction of electromagnetic fields. The electric field along the velocity of motion, making it stronger at right angles to the charge. But we have not been able to measure length contraction of, say, a train or a ruler due to the huge velocities we would need to obtain.

    cheers, I must have a look at those, but my immediate reaction is how does a changing electric field verify anything other than a changing electric field.


  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    The issue I have, i suppose, is with stepping out of the mathematical hypershpere and into "real space", and vice versa; because it's not quite as simple as the ball being in front of one post and behind another, it is a case of remaining beside the post in one reference frame, while the post is moving away from it in another, where both balls and posts are the same.

    It also seems as though the problem of the constancy of the speed of light would be addressed if the observer on the train were to conclude that it is the train that is moving relative to the surface of the earth, and not the earth that was moving.

    No it would not. It is not simply that all observers will derive the speed of light to be c with respect to some source. It is that all observers will measure the speed of light to be c. If we were talking about sound, you would be perfectly correct. If the pole emitted a sound wave at speed u, then all observers would conclude that the pole is at the centre of the sound wave. I.e. If an observer was moving towards the pole at speed v, they would measure the speed of sound with respect to them to be v+u. They would measure the speed of the pole to be v, and hence conclude that the centre of the soundwave is at the pole.

    But this is not the case with light. An observer standing by the pole will measure the speed of light to be c. An observer travelling at speed 1 kph, or 100 kph, or .99999c towards the pole will measure the light to be travelling at c. If the expanding sphere of light is measured to be the same for all observers, but the speed of the pole is not measured to be the same for all observers, how can the pole be at the centre for all observers?

    Perhaps the conceptual problem is you think the only way to measure the speed of light would be to time the distance between the emission from the pole and the detection of light. Let's say the observer had infinitely precise apparatus for measuring the speed of the passing light ray. Or let's say the observer is a supernatural being that can "see" the light wave travelling towards him, and "see", via an elaborate set of synchronised relays/supernatural ability,. where the pole actually is. They will measure the expansion of the sphere of light to be c in all directions. They will measure the speed of the pole to be v.

    So there are two ways this can be explored. We can either debate whether or not experiments have shown that the speed of light is the same for all observers (which could lead us into dangerous crank territory), or we can debate the interpretation of lorentz transformations. But what we can't do is claim observers will all measure the speed of light to be c and all observers will discover the pole to be at the centre of the light wave. You can have one, or the other, but not both.
    The analogy doesn't accurately represet the [alleged] observed phenomenon; because the dot doesn't shift from centre in the direction of motion, but in the opposite direction; so it doesn't actually inheret speed.

    It would actually have to inheret speed to hit the centre, because the location of the sensor - in "real space" - would have changed from when the the pulse was sent, with the orbit of the earth in "real space", or reality.

    It is more like "space invaders" where both the ship and the "alien" are moving in the same direction, say to the right of the screen; if the ship fires a shot when it is located directly at the centre point of the alien, then it won't hit the alien in the centre point, but in a point to the left of the aliens centre, becuase the alien will have moved by the time the pulse reaches it.

    That is not how velocity addition works. Again, there seems to be a misunderstanding of what it means to measure the speed of light to be c. If an alien and a ship are stationary with respect to "real space", the shot will be travelling at a speed u. If the alien and the ship start moving with respect to "real space" at speed v, the shot would appear to "fall behind" at an angle, and move at a speed

    u' = square root of u^2+v^2

    Similarly if the laser dot shifts by some angle A, it's resultant speed will be

    c' = c/Cos(A)

    unless you postulate some mysterious mechanism that slows the transverse motion of the laser. I.e. When the ship fires at the alien, not only does the shot travel at an angle, but actually slows down by some mysterious force. This clearly doesn't happen. A moving gun turret will not fire slower bullets than a stationary gun turret.
    I don't doubt that the two can be reconciled, because the nuance of relativity is such that it allows for the "re-graphing" of all observed phenomena from an infinite number of reference frames; to the extent that, as far as I can see, the geocentric worldview cannot necessarily be determined to be incorrect - and isn't necessarily incorrect.

    It also appears to rely on an apparently ridiculous assumption; namely, that for the relevant observer, the rotation of the earth just happens to increase, such that the relative change in distance is exactly the same as they would expect were it the train that were moving relative to the surface of the earth, at the given velocity; not only that, but the rotation of the earth just happens to increase at the exact moment that the accelerator is pressed; not only that, but the rotation of the earth also slows down at exactly the same rate as they would expect the train to, when the brakes are applied; again, all this occuring to co-incide with the exact time they apply the brake.

    The consequence of that reasoning is that the engine of a train doesn't actually propel a train forward.

    It is more subtle than that. All relativity says is that there is no physically meaningful distinction between the two frames of reference. The difference between "The train slows down" and "The Earth slows down" is a difference in co-ordinate labels. They are labels for the same physical events. Just as some might call you by your first name and some might call you by your last name, but they are both consistently addressing the same thing (you).
    does the application of the brake cause the geometry of spacetime to slow the earth?

    No.. This is a very important point. That would be a massive violation of causality, and would also be physically absurd. The breaks do not send some instantaneous pulse across the universe, switching on a gravitational field. It is simply that the geometry of space time is such that, if you use a co-ordinate system which labels the train as stationary, the earth will be labelled as decelerating, and that this co-ordinate system can be consistently related to other co-ordinate systems where the train is labelled as decelerating and the earth is labelled as stationary. This was Einstein's massive insight, made possible by considering gravity as a consequence of non-euclidean geometry.
    also, are there not effects directly (or even indirectly) related to the speed of the earths rotation that could be tested to see if the rotation of the earth has actually changed?

    It must be stressed that it is not a matter of cause and effect. It is a matter of labels. There is no effect to be detected because the train does not cause anything to happen.
    Not necessarily. If you are typing at t=0 (the pushing the pause button) then I amn't reading it, I am doing something else.

    But both events are in the present, of the button push. The only difference is the co-ordinate labels. Which labels do you choose in order to decide which is in the present?
    again, it's not that the event is real or isn't, it might be clearer to simply state that it isn't in that reference frame; it may be similar to the manner in which a sphere of light can remain centred over a moving rod and remain stationary elsewhere, simultaneously.

    To try and bring this back to the topic, how would you then, if you were an omniscient being, define the true snapshot of the present. If "real" is just a consequence of co-ordinate labels then "real" is arbitrary.
    cheers, I must have a look at those, but my immediate reaction is how does a changing electric field verify anything other than a changing electric field.

    It is not simply that the magnetic field "changes". Magnetic field lines radiate from a source uniformly. If the source is moving, the lines are contracted, causing the density of lines to increase at right angles to the source. So the field changes in precisely the way predicted by length-contraction.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    apologies for the delay in replying; I'm just in the process of moving over to South Korea, so I haven't had a chance to type up a full reply. I'll post it as soon as I get an opportunity.


  • Registered Users Posts: 2,552 ✭✭✭roosh


    Again, apologies for the delay.
    Morbert wrote: »
    No it would not. It is not simply that all observers will derive the speed of light to be c with respect to some source. It is that all observers will measure the speed of light to be c. If we were talking about sound, you would be perfectly correct. If the pole emitted a sound wave at speed u, then all observers would conclude that the pole is at the centre of the sound wave. I.e. If an observer was moving towards the pole at speed v, they would measure the speed of sound with respect to them to be v+u. They would measure the speed of the pole to be v, and hence conclude that the centre of the soundwave is at the pole.

    But this is not the case with light. An observer standing by the pole will measure the speed of light to be c. An observer travelling at speed 1 kph, or 100 kph, or .99999c towards the pole will measure the light to be travelling at c. If the expanding sphere of light is measured to be the same for all observers, but the speed of the pole is not measured to be the same for all observers, how can the pole be at the centre for all observers?

    Perhaps the conceptual problem is you think the only way to measure the speed of light would be to time the distance between the emission from the pole and the detection of light. Let's say the observer had infinitely precise apparatus for measuring the speed of the passing light ray. Or let's say the observer is a supernatural being that can "see" the light wave travelling towards him, and "see", via an elaborate set of synchronised relays/supernatural ability,. where the pole actually is. They will measure the expansion of the sphere of light to be c in all directions. They will measure the speed of the pole to be v.

    So there are two ways this can be explored. We can either debate whether or not experiments have shown that the speed of light is the same for all observers (which could lead us into dangerous crank territory), or we can debate the interpretation of lorentz transformations. But what we can't do is claim observers will all measure the speed of light to be c and all observers will discover the pole to be at the centre of the light wave. You can have one, or the other, but not both.
    From a personal point of view I would be interesed in understanding the experiments that have shown light is the same for all observers, to understand better how they do this; not because I doubt that they do, but just to understand them better. I wouldn't necessarily say that it would be a subject of debate, but rather something I would subject to the same questioning I would most things I am trying to develop an understanding of; again, I appreciate that that would probably be tedious for you, so I will try and look into it myself; of course, any guidance, such has been given thus far will be greatly appreciated.

    I do have one question with respect to the measuring of the speed of light though; which stems somewhat from another analogy I have oft heard cited; the analogy is that of two cars driving on a road, where one car passes another, where one car is driving at 60kph, while the other is driving at 80kph; to the car driving at 60kph, it appears as though the other car is travelling at 20kph. This, however, is not said to be the case with light; it is said that the driver driving at 60kph would still measure light as passing him at a speed c.

    I'm just wondering how that has been tested; or has it been tested?


    With regard to the Lorentz transformations, I think this is challenged - or at least the derivation of the Lorentz factor is - by the author; which pertains directly to the points made below [I think].

    Morbert wrote: »
    That is not how velocity addition works. Again, there seems to be a misunderstanding of what it means to measure the speed of light to be c. If an alien and a ship are stationary with respect to "real space", the shot will be travelling at a speed u. If the alien and the ship start moving with respect to "real space" at speed v, the shot would appear to "fall behind" at an angle, and move at a speed

    u' = square root of u^2+v^2

    Similarly if the laser dot shifts by some angle A, it's resultant speed will be

    c' = c/Cos(A)

    unless you postulate some mysterious mechanism that slows the transverse motion of the laser. I.e. When the ship fires at the alien, not only does the shot travel at an angle, but actually slows down by some mysterious force. This clearly doesn't happen. A moving gun turret will not fire slower bullets than a stationary gun turret.
    It might be helpful to clarify that "real space" isn't [I don't think] the absolute space and time that Newton referred to, so talking about movement relative to "real space" doesn't necessarily, accurately represent the authors position. The term "real space" can be read as "in real life", or "in the real world", as opposed to a mathematical representation of it.

    It might also be clearer to formulate the scenario thusly:

    If we picture two observers standing at opposite ends of a bowling alley, at a point right in the centre; one of them has a bowling ball which he bowls straight along the centre line. The ball will travel in a straight line and arrive at the feet of the other observer.

    Now, if we picture the same scenario, where the the observer with the ball again bowls the ball straight down the centre line, but this time both observers move away from the centre line in the same direction. This time the ball will not arrive at the feet of the observer, but it will travel in a straight line. The illusion of the ball (or shot) having travelled at an angle only arises by drawing a line from where the ball ends up to where the "bowler" has moved to, not the actual path of the ball.

    The issue of the ball (or the shot) travelling at an angle, in the second scenario, only arises if the ball arrives at the feet of the observer [in receipt of the ball]. It is that scenario that requires the explanation of the mysterious force which causes the ball (or shot) to travel at an angle and mysteriously speed up.
    Morbert wrote: »
    It is more subtle than that. All relativity says is that there is no physically meaningful distinction between the two frames of reference. The difference between "The train slows down" and "The Earth slows down" is a difference in co-ordinate labels. They are labels for the same physical events. Just as some might call you by your first name and some might call you by your last name, but they are both consistently addressing the same thing (you).
    It may be stated subtly in the theory, but the consequences of it are less so, to my mind.

    If we picture the scenario where Observer 1 & 2 are waiting at the platform as the train arrives, both will be in agreement that it is the train that is in motion relative to the surface of the earth.

    If Observer 1 boards the train, he will then come to the conclusion that the surface of the earth has suddenly started moving underneath him, even if he is reassured via telecommunications with Observer 2 that it is the train that is in motion, just as they both had observed before. Not only that, but he will conclude that the surface of the earth has started to move by exactly the amount he would expect were his friend on the platform telling the truth, that it is the train that is in motion; further, he would conclude that the surface of the earth just happened to start moving at the precise moment that the accelerator of the train was pressed.

    Despite observing the train in motion before boarding, he will still conclude that the surface of the earth has suddenly started moving since he boarded the train, and that it is moving in such a way that the effects are the exact same as he would expect if it was the train that was moving; speeding up, slowing down, going forward and reversing. He will also disagree with his friend about the process of how he boarded the train; desite being familiar with terms that he applies to his friend such as "walking" and "motion", and the fact that he appeared to have executed the same "walking "actions as his friend usually does, together with the fact that he once upon a time used to believe he was capable of "motion", he will still conclude that the surface of the earth shifted in such a way that the train moved closer to him and then down the requisuite amount to allow him to "climb" the steps and board the train.


    Not only that, but after the train returns to the platform and he gets off, and the earth's surface moves in just the right manner to position him beside his colleague again, he will arrive at the conclusion that the earth's surface has suddenly stopped moving the way it had, and that the train has suddenly regained the capacity for "motion" which it appeared to have mysteriously lost when he boarded the train.
    Morbert wrote: »
    No.. This is a very important point. That would be a massive violation of causality, and would also be physically absurd. The breaks do not send some instantaneous pulse across the universe, switching on a gravitational field. It is simply that the geometry of space time is such that, if you use a co-ordinate system which labels the train as stationary, the earth will be labelled as decelerating, and that this co-ordinate system can be consistently related to other co-ordinate systems where the train is labelled as decelerating and the earth is labelled as stationary. This was Einstein's massive insight, made possible by considering gravity as a consequence of non-euclidean geometry.
    I'm not sure if I should apologise for asking the question because I knew the answer before I asked it; it was more of an attempt to highlight the issue of cause and effect and the uniformity of the the laws of the universe, in all reference frames, when addressing the cause of the increased rotation speed of the earth, particularly when a direct correlation could be drawn between the pressing of the accelerator and the increase in the rotation speed of the earth - when no other mitigating factor is obvious.

    Morbert wrote: »
    It must be stressed that it is not a matter of cause and effect. It is a matter of labels. There is no effect to be detected because the train does not cause anything to happen.
    Length contraction and the rotation of the earth are matters of cause and effect though, aren't they?

    Are there not also effects that arise as a consequence of the earths rotation, which could potentially inform the Observer on the train whether or not the earths rotation quickened; could an experiment testing the Coriolis effect help him conclude whether or not the earths rotation quickened?

    Are things like climate, ocean currents, and tectonic forces also linked to the rotation of the earth*? Could measurements of these help him to come to a conclusion?

    Would a video recording of a Focault Pendulum give him some evidence of whether or not the rotation had quickened?

    Again, how did we arrive at a heliocentric worldview if everyone on the planet should have observed, not even a geocentric universe, but an egocentric universe?

    Morbert wrote: »
    But both events are in the present, of the button push. The only difference is the co-ordinate labels. Which labels do you choose in order to decide which is in the present?
    I'm not entirely sure how you come to the conclusion that both events are in the present of the button push.

    Morbert wrote: »
    To try and bring this back to the topic, how would you then, if you were an omniscient being, define the true snapshot of the present. If "real" is just a consequence of co-ordinate labels then "real" is arbitrary.
    My apologies, this line of reasoning is arising from an attempt to marry two worldviews, of which one [or even both] may not necessarily represent reality accurately; but I'll happily continue with it.

    Forgive me though if I answer your question with a question: if that omniscient being was the universe itself, which would be the past and which would be the present?
    Morbert wrote: »
    It is not simply that the magnetic field "changes". Magnetic field lines radiate from a source uniformly. If the source is moving, the lines are contracted, causing the density of lines to increase at right angles to the source. So the field changes in precisely the way predicted by length-contraction.
    The trouble I'm having is not so much the issue that something in motion contracts; the trouble I have is with how the opposite perspective is shown. From the perspective of the magnetic field, the lines don't contract, but how is this demonstrated (not necessarily for the magnetic field, but for an observer).

    For example, in the atomic clock experiments, should the effect not happen in reverse for the pilot of the concorde i.e. should the clocks on the ground not tick slower (or faster, whatever the corresponding effect is) from their perspective?

    EDIT: apologies, I was misapplying the reasoning there; the scenario should be reversed for both observers in the thought experiment. It wouldn't apply to the concorde experiment bcos of the movement from a higher to a lower gravily well (is that correct?)


    Another issue I'm having trouble with, which is a direct consequence, is the idea that an observer can be both in motion and at rest at the same time; also, if no one reference frame is right or wrong, how can an observer come to the conlcusion that another observers equipment is wrong?


  • Advertisement
  • Registered Users Posts: 3,457 ✭✭✭Morbert


    roosh wrote: »
    I do have one question with respect to the measuring of the speed of light though; which stems somewhat from another analogy I have oft heard cited; the analogy is that of two cars driving on a road, where one car passes another, where one car is driving at 60kph, while the other is driving at 80kph; to the car driving at 60kph, it appears as though the other car is travelling at 20kph. This, however, is not said to be the case with light; it is said that the driver driving at 60kph would still measure light as passing him at a speed c.

    I'm just wondering how that has been tested; or has it been tested?

    I will describe the "types" of experiment that directly tests the postulate. Specific references can easily be found by googling something like "experimental evidence for speed of light isotropy".

    The first type is essentially the measurement of the speed of light by an apparatus when it is in motion and when it is stationary. If the speed of light is anisotropic, we would expect to observe changes in light patterns analogous to changes in sound patterns or water wave patterns.

    The second type is the interaction of light with moving particles. If the speed of light is anisotropic (or more inclusively, if there was no lorentz invariance), we would expect a classical Doppler effect. What we instead observe is a relativistic Doppler effect. This Doppler effect is precisely the effect predicted by the principle of Lorentz invariance.

    There are other more esoteric experiments, but this quick introduction should give you an idea of what to expect.
    It might be helpful to clarify that "real space" isn't [I don't think] the absolute space and time that Newton referred to, so talking about movement relative to "real space" doesn't necessarily, accurately represent the authors position. The term "real space" can be read as "in real life", or "in the real world", as opposed to a mathematical representation of it.

    It might also be clearer to formulate the scenario thusly:

    If we picture two observers standing at opposite ends of a bowling alley, at a point right in the centre; one of them has a bowling ball which he bowls straight along the centre line. The ball will travel in a straight line and arrive at the feet of the other observer.

    Now, if we picture the same scenario, where the the observer with the ball again bowls the ball straight down the centre line, but this time both observers move away from the centre line in the same direction. This time the ball will not arrive at the feet of the observer, but it will travel in a straight line. The illusion of the ball (or shot) having travelled at an angle only arises by drawing a line from where the ball ends up to where the "bowler" has moved to, not the actual path of the ball.

    The issue of the ball (or the shot) travelling at an angle, in the second scenario, only arises if the ball arrives at the feet of the observer [in receipt of the ball]. It is that scenario that requires the explanation of the mysterious force which causes the ball (or shot) to travel at an angle and mysteriously speed up.

    The bowling ball will still arrive at the feet of the other observer because the bowling ball has momentum imparted by the motion of the observer. There is a simple way you can verify this princple. The next time you and a friend are sitting in the back of a car, throw a tennis ball back and forth. Does the ball fly out the back window, even if the car is travelling fast? No. It arrives at your hands.

    But anyway, let's say it didn't. Both observers would indeed see the ball speed up. Just as you would see a tennis ball speed up if you threw it out the window of a moving car. But if the ball were made of light, this would mean the light sped up. Hence, the laser experiment we were discussing breaks the principle of light anisotropy.
    It may be stated subtly in the theory, but the consequences of it are less so, to my mind.

    If we picture the scenario where Observer 1 & 2 are waiting at the platform as the train arrives, both will be in agreement that it is the train that is in motion relative to the surface of the earth.

    If Observer 1 boards the train, he will then come to the conclusion that the surface of the earth has suddenly started moving underneath him, even if he is reassured via telecommunications with Observer 2 that it is the train that is in motion, just as they both had observed before. Not only that, but he will conclude that the surface of the earth has started to move by exactly the amount he would expect were his friend on the platform telling the truth, that it is the train that is in motion; further, he would conclude that the surface of the earth just happened to start moving at the precise moment that the accelerator of the train was pressed.

    Despite observing the train in motion before boarding, he will still conclude that the surface of the earth has suddenly started moving since he boarded the train, and that it is moving in such a way that the effects are the exact same as he would expect if it was the train that was moving; speeding up, slowing down, going forward and reversing. He will also disagree with his friend about the process of how he boarded the train; desite being familiar with terms that he applies to his friend such as "walking" and "motion", and the fact that he appeared to have executed the same "walking "actions as his friend usually does, together with the fact that he once upon a time used to believe he was capable of "motion", he will still conclude that the surface of the earth shifted in such a way that the train moved closer to him and then down the requisuite amount to allow him to "climb" the steps and board the train.


    Not only that, but after the train returns to the platform and he gets off, and the earth's surface moves in just the right manner to position him beside his colleague again, he will arrive at the conclusion that the earth's surface has suddenly stopped moving the way it had, and that the train has suddenly regained the capacity for "motion" which it appeared to have mysteriously lost when he boarded the train.

    He would then realise that he forgot about the equivalence principle. The mysterious gravitational force he detected, that is responsible for the earth "mysteriously" falling behind him, is not a force at all, it is merely the geometry of events. If he labels himself as stationary, the earth will be labelled as moving. He does not need to attach any ontological significance to this labelling, because he realises labelling is arbitrary. His labels are just as consistent with physics as his friends. Then, if he is as smart as Einstein, he can devise a set of equations to generalise this principle and produce a classical theory of gravitation

    Length contraction and the rotation of the earth are matters of cause and effect though, aren't they?

    Are there not also effects that arise as a consequence of the earths rotation, which could potentially inform the Observer on the train whether or not the earths rotation quickened; could an experiment testing the Coriolis effect help him conclude whether or not the earths rotation quickened?

    Are things like climate, ocean currents, and tectonic forces also linked to the rotation of the earth*? Could measurements of these help him to come to a conclusion?

    Would a video recording of a Focault Pendulum give him some evidence of whether or not the rotation had quickened?

    Again, how did we arrive at a heliocentric worldview if everyone on the planet should have observed, not even a geocentric universe, but an egocentric universe?

    They are not a matter of cause and effect. I cannot stress this enough. The motion of a train does not cause it to contract. Nor does it cause the earth to contract. A right-angled triangle does not cause Pythagoras's theorem. These are not events to be caused or affected. It is simply the geometry of events is such that the relation between events, when comparing reference frames, can be characterised by length contraction and time dilation, and h^2 = x^2 + y^2 in the case of the triangle.

    A handy rule of thumb is, if two events are causally related, they can hypothetically be connected via a light signal.
    I'm not entirely sure how you come to the conclusion that both events are in the present of the button push.

    There are frames of reference where the button push is co-incident with one event or the other. I.e. Some observers will say the button was pushed when I wrote this. Other observers will say the button was pushed when you read this.
    My apologies, this line of reasoning is arising from an attempt to marry two worldviews, of which one [or even both] may not necessarily represent reality accurately; but I'll happily continue with it.

    Forgive me though if I answer your question with a question: if that omniscient being was the universe itself, which would be the past and which would be the present?

    It is a useful question to ask for this discussion, as it illustrates an important point. The universe would see all events related by the light-cone structure mentioned earlier. It would, in effect, see all frames of reference, and see any particular frame of reference as an arbitrary viewpoint of some mortal observer. The universe would then formulate general relativity to coherently understand this structure.
    The trouble I'm having is not so much the issue that something in motion contracts; the trouble I have is with how the opposite perspective is shown. From the perspective of the magnetic field, the lines don't contract, but how is this demonstrated (not necessarily for the magnetic field, but for an observer).

    For example, in the atomic clock experiments, should the effect not happen in reverse for the pilot of the concorde i.e. should the clocks on the ground not tick slower (or faster, whatever the corresponding effect is) from their perspective?

    EDIT: apologies, I was misapplying the reasoning there; the scenario should be reversed for both observers in the thought experiment. It wouldn't apply to the concorde experiment bcos of the movement from a higher to a lower gravily well (is that correct?)

    Your concern is related to the twin paradox, which says that both twins would see the other's clock tick slowly, but only one ages faster than the other. The solution is a useful introduction to relativity.
    Another issue I'm having trouble with, which is a direct consequence, is the idea that an observer can be both in motion and at rest at the same time; also, if no one reference frame is right or wrong, how can an observer come to the conlcusion that another observers equipment is wrong?

    It's no stranger than the notion that you can be "mangaroosh" and "roosh" at the same time. "In motion" is an arbitrary label. All that matters is we use the labels consistently.


This discussion has been closed.
Advertisement